ATI MATERNAL HEALTH OB
ANSWER KEY LATEST 2021.
GRADED A COMPLETE
SOLUTION GUIDE with
rationales guaranteed pass
,1|Page
ATI MATERNAL HEALTH OB ANSWER KEY LATEST 2021.
GRADED A COMPLETE SOLUTION GUIDE with rationales
guaranteed pass
Question 1:
A pregnant woman in her first trimester asks the nurse about the changes she might expect
in her body. Which of the following responses is most accurate?
a) "Your body temperature will decrease."
b) "You will likely experience increased energy."
c) "You may notice changes in your breast size and tenderness."
d) "You will lose weight in the first trimester."
Correct Answer: c) "You may notice changes in your breast size and tenderness."
Rationale:
During the first trimester of pregnancy, hormonal changes cause breast enlargement and
tenderness. These changes occur as the body prepares for breastfeeding. Increased energy is
more common in the second trimester, and weight loss in the first trimester could indicate a
problem such as hyperemesis gravidarum.
Question 2:
Which of the following is a common finding during the third trimester of pregnancy?
a) Shortness of breath and fatigue
b) Severe nausea and vomiting
c) Frequent urination with dark-colored urine
d) Decreased fetal movement
Correct Answer: a) Shortness of breath and fatigue
Rationale:
In the third trimester, the enlarging uterus presses on the diaphragm, which can cause shortness
of breath. Fatigue is also common due to the increased metabolic demands of pregnancy. Severe
nausea and vomiting are more common in the first trimester, while decreased fetal movement
may indicate a problem and requires assessment.
,2|Page
Question 3:
A client at 20 weeks of gestation presents with a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg. Which of
the following interventions should the nurse implement?
a) Assess for signs of preeclampsia and notify the healthcare provider.
b) Recheck the blood pressure after 1 hour.
c) Advise the client to rest and monitor blood pressure at home.
d) Encourage the client to drink more fluids and rest.
Correct Answer: a) Assess for signs of preeclampsia and notify the healthcare provider.
Rationale:
A blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg is elevated and could be a sign of preeclampsia. This
requires further assessment for other signs and symptoms (such as proteinuria and edema) and
notification of the healthcare provider for appropriate intervention.
Question 4:
Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action for a client who is 35 weeks
pregnant and is experiencing decreased fetal movement?
a) Provide comfort measures and reassure the client that this is normal.
b) Recommend that the client eat a snack and lie down to monitor fetal movements.
c) Encourage the client to increase physical activity to stimulate the fetus.
d) Perform a non-stress test (NST) to assess fetal well-being.
Correct Answer: b) Recommend that the client eat a snack and lie down to monitor fetal
movements.
Rationale:
Decreased fetal movement can be an indication of fetal distress. However, the first step is to
ensure the mother is comfortable, and eating a snack may stimulate the fetus to move. If
movements do not increase, further assessments such as an NST or biophysical profile (BPP)
may be needed.
Question 5:
A nurse is teaching a pregnant client about warning signs during pregnancy. Which of the
following should the nurse include as a warning sign?
, 3|Page
a) Lightheadedness after standing up quickly
b) Blurred vision and headache
c) Mild leg swelling
d) Occasional heartburn
Correct Answer: b) Blurred vision and headache
Rationale:
Blurred vision and a headache can be signs of preeclampsia, which is a serious condition during
pregnancy. Lightheadedness, mild leg swelling, and occasional heartburn are common and
generally not concerning unless they become severe or persistent.
Question 6:
A nurse is preparing a client for labor and delivery. Which of the following is the priority
action for the nurse when the client’s membranes rupture?
a) Document the time and color of the amniotic fluid.
b) Check the fetal heart rate immediately.
c) Position the client to prevent umbilical cord prolapse.
d) Assess the mother for signs of labor progression.
Correct Answer: b) Check the fetal heart rate immediately.
Rationale:
After the membranes rupture, the priority is to assess the fetal heart rate to ensure there is no
cord prolapse or fetal distress. Umbilical cord prolapse can occur, but fetal heart rate monitoring
is the immediate priority.
Question 7:
A client at 30 weeks gestation is diagnosed with gestational diabetes. Which of the following
dietary recommendations is the most appropriate?
a) Avoid all carbohydrates to keep blood sugar levels stable.
b) Eat small meals and snacks every 2-3 hours.
c) Follow a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet.
d) Focus on increasing intake of sugars to prevent hypoglycemia.
Correct Answer: b) Eat small meals and snacks every 2-3 hours.
ANSWER KEY LATEST 2021.
GRADED A COMPLETE
SOLUTION GUIDE with
rationales guaranteed pass
,1|Page
ATI MATERNAL HEALTH OB ANSWER KEY LATEST 2021.
GRADED A COMPLETE SOLUTION GUIDE with rationales
guaranteed pass
Question 1:
A pregnant woman in her first trimester asks the nurse about the changes she might expect
in her body. Which of the following responses is most accurate?
a) "Your body temperature will decrease."
b) "You will likely experience increased energy."
c) "You may notice changes in your breast size and tenderness."
d) "You will lose weight in the first trimester."
Correct Answer: c) "You may notice changes in your breast size and tenderness."
Rationale:
During the first trimester of pregnancy, hormonal changes cause breast enlargement and
tenderness. These changes occur as the body prepares for breastfeeding. Increased energy is
more common in the second trimester, and weight loss in the first trimester could indicate a
problem such as hyperemesis gravidarum.
Question 2:
Which of the following is a common finding during the third trimester of pregnancy?
a) Shortness of breath and fatigue
b) Severe nausea and vomiting
c) Frequent urination with dark-colored urine
d) Decreased fetal movement
Correct Answer: a) Shortness of breath and fatigue
Rationale:
In the third trimester, the enlarging uterus presses on the diaphragm, which can cause shortness
of breath. Fatigue is also common due to the increased metabolic demands of pregnancy. Severe
nausea and vomiting are more common in the first trimester, while decreased fetal movement
may indicate a problem and requires assessment.
,2|Page
Question 3:
A client at 20 weeks of gestation presents with a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg. Which of
the following interventions should the nurse implement?
a) Assess for signs of preeclampsia and notify the healthcare provider.
b) Recheck the blood pressure after 1 hour.
c) Advise the client to rest and monitor blood pressure at home.
d) Encourage the client to drink more fluids and rest.
Correct Answer: a) Assess for signs of preeclampsia and notify the healthcare provider.
Rationale:
A blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg is elevated and could be a sign of preeclampsia. This
requires further assessment for other signs and symptoms (such as proteinuria and edema) and
notification of the healthcare provider for appropriate intervention.
Question 4:
Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action for a client who is 35 weeks
pregnant and is experiencing decreased fetal movement?
a) Provide comfort measures and reassure the client that this is normal.
b) Recommend that the client eat a snack and lie down to monitor fetal movements.
c) Encourage the client to increase physical activity to stimulate the fetus.
d) Perform a non-stress test (NST) to assess fetal well-being.
Correct Answer: b) Recommend that the client eat a snack and lie down to monitor fetal
movements.
Rationale:
Decreased fetal movement can be an indication of fetal distress. However, the first step is to
ensure the mother is comfortable, and eating a snack may stimulate the fetus to move. If
movements do not increase, further assessments such as an NST or biophysical profile (BPP)
may be needed.
Question 5:
A nurse is teaching a pregnant client about warning signs during pregnancy. Which of the
following should the nurse include as a warning sign?
, 3|Page
a) Lightheadedness after standing up quickly
b) Blurred vision and headache
c) Mild leg swelling
d) Occasional heartburn
Correct Answer: b) Blurred vision and headache
Rationale:
Blurred vision and a headache can be signs of preeclampsia, which is a serious condition during
pregnancy. Lightheadedness, mild leg swelling, and occasional heartburn are common and
generally not concerning unless they become severe or persistent.
Question 6:
A nurse is preparing a client for labor and delivery. Which of the following is the priority
action for the nurse when the client’s membranes rupture?
a) Document the time and color of the amniotic fluid.
b) Check the fetal heart rate immediately.
c) Position the client to prevent umbilical cord prolapse.
d) Assess the mother for signs of labor progression.
Correct Answer: b) Check the fetal heart rate immediately.
Rationale:
After the membranes rupture, the priority is to assess the fetal heart rate to ensure there is no
cord prolapse or fetal distress. Umbilical cord prolapse can occur, but fetal heart rate monitoring
is the immediate priority.
Question 7:
A client at 30 weeks gestation is diagnosed with gestational diabetes. Which of the following
dietary recommendations is the most appropriate?
a) Avoid all carbohydrates to keep blood sugar levels stable.
b) Eat small meals and snacks every 2-3 hours.
c) Follow a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet.
d) Focus on increasing intake of sugars to prevent hypoglycemia.
Correct Answer: b) Eat small meals and snacks every 2-3 hours.
