Nclex questions 4100 exam 3

Nclex questions 4100 exam 3 .A chaotic small, irregular, disorganized cardiac pattern suddenly appears on a client's cardiac monitor. Which is the nurse's first action? 1.Check the blood pressure. 2.Call the health care provider (HCP). 3.Check the client and the chest leads. 4.Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). - Answer-3 Rationale:This type of pattern on the cardiac monitor indicates either ventricular fibrillation or lead displacement. The first action of the nurse is always to check the client and the chest leads. If the client is nonresponsive and the leads are not the problem, CPR would be the next choice, along with designating another person to contact the HCP. .A chest x-ray report for a client indicates the presence of a left apical pneumothorax. The nurse would assess the status of breath sounds in that area by placing the stethoscope in which location? 1.Just under the left clavicle 2.Midsternum, 1 inch to the left 3.Over the fifth intercostal space 4.Midsternum, 1 inch to the right - Answer-1 Rationale:The apex of the lung is the rounded, uppermost part of the lung. Therefore, the nurse would place the stethoscope just under the left clavicle. All of the other options are incorrect locations for assessing the left apex. .A client admitted to the hospital with coronary artery disease complains of dyspnea at rest. The nurse caring for the client uses which item as the best means to monitor respiratory status on an ongoing basis? 1.Apnea monitor 2.Oxygen flowmeter 3.Telemetry cardiac monitor 4.Oxygen saturation monitor - Answer-4 Rationale:Dyspnea in the cardiac client often is accompanied by hypoxemia. Hypoxemia can be detected by an oxygen saturation monitor, especially if it is used continuously. An apnea monitor detects apnea episodes, such as when the client has stopped breathing briefly. An oxygen flowmeter is part of the setup for delivering oxygen therapy. Cardiac monitors detect dysrhythmias. .A client being admitted to the coronary care unit from the emergency department has a stat prescription to receive a dose of intravenous procainamide followed by a continuous infusion. Based on this prescription, the nurse should assess for which condition? 1.Dyspnea 2.Bradycardia 3.Hypertension 4.Ventricular ectopy - Answer-4 Rationale:Procainamide is an antidysrhythmic medication used to treat ventricular dysrhythmias unresponsive to lidocaine. The other options are not indications for giving this medication. .A client develops atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 140 beats/minute and signs of decreased cardiac output. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering first? 1.Warfarin 2.Lidocaine 3.Metoprolol 4.Atropine sulfate - Answer-3 Rationale:Beta blockers such as metoprolol slow conduction of impulses through the atrioventricular node and decrease the heart rate. In rapid atrial fibrillation, the goal first is to slow the ventricular rate and improve the cardiac output and then attempt to restore normal sinus rhythm. Atropine sulfate will further increase the heart rate and will further decrease the cardiac output. Although warfarin is administered to clients with atrial fibrillation to prevent clots from forming in the atria, it will have no effect in decreasing the ventricular rate or restoring normal sinus rhythm. Lidocaine is useful only in suppressing ventricular dysrhythmias. .A client has been treated for pleural effusion with a thoracentesis. The nurse determines that this procedure has been effective if the nurse notes which assessment finding? 1.Absence of dyspnea 2.Increased severity of cough 3.Dull percussion notes over lung tissue 4.Decreased tactile fremitus over lung tissue - Answer-1 Rationale:The client who has undergone thoracentesis should experience relief of the signs and symptoms experienced before the procedure. Typical signs and symptoms of pleural effusion include dry, nonproductive cough; dyspnea (usually on exertion); decreased or absent tactile fremitus; and dull or flat percussion notes on respiratory assessment. .A client has developed uncontrolled atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 150 beats/min. What manifestation should the nurse observe for when performing the client's focused assessment? 1.Flat neck veins 2.Nausea and vomiting 3.Hypotension and dizziness 4.Clubbed fingertips and headache - Answer-3 Rationale:The client with uncontrolled atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate greater than 100 beats/min is at risk for low cardiac output due to loss of atrial kick. The nurse assesses the client for palpitations, chest pain or discomfort, hypotension, pulse deficit, fatigue, weakness, dizziness, syncope, shortness of breath, and distended neck veins. .A client has experienced pulmonary embolism. The nurse should assess for which symptom, which is most commonly reported? 1. Hot, flushed feeling 2. Sudden chills and fever 3. Chest pain that occurs suddenly 4. Dyspnea when deep breaths are taken - Answer-3 The most common initial symptom in pulmonary embolism is chest pain that is sudden in onset. The next most commonly reported symptom is dyspnea, which is accompanied by an increased respiratory rate. Other typical symptoms of pulmonary embolism include apprehension and restlessness, tachycardia, cough, and cyanosis. .A client has experienced pulmonary embolism. The nurse should assess for which symptom, which is most commonly reported? 1.Hot, flushed feeling 2.Sudden chills and fever 3.Chest pain that occurs suddenly 4.Dyspnea when deep breaths are taken - Answer-3 Rationale:The most common initial symptom in pulmonary embolism is chest pain that is sudden in onset. The next most commonly reported symptom is dyspnea, which is accompanied by an increased respiratory rate. Other typical symptoms of pulmonary embolism include apprehension and restlessness, tachycardia, cough, and cyanosis. .A client has frequent bursts of ventricular tachycardia on the cardiac monitor. What should the nurse be most concerned about with this dysrhythmia? 1.It can develop into ventricular fibrillation at any time. 2.It is almost impossible to convert to a normal rhythm. 3.It is uncomfortable for the client, giving a sense of impending doom. 4.It produces a high cardiac output that quickly leads to cerebral and myocardial ischemia. - Answer-1 Rationale:Ventricular tachycardia is a life-threatening dysrhythmia that results from an irritable ectopic focus that takes over as the pacemaker for the heart. The low cardiac output that results can lead quickly to cerebral and myocardial ischemia. Clients frequently experience a feeling of impending doom. Ventricular tachycardia is treated with antidysrhythmic medications, cardioversion (if the client is awake), or defibrillation (loss of consciousness). Ventricular tachycardia can deteriorate into ventricular fibrillation at any time. .A client has frequent runs of ventricular tachycardia. The health care provider has prescribed flecainide. What is the best nursing action related to the effects of this medication while the client is hospitalized? 1.Monitor the client's urinary output. 2.Assess the client for neurological changes. 3.Keep the call bell within the client's reach. 4.Monitor vital signs and cardiac rhythm frequently. - Answer-4 Rationale:Flecainide is an antidysrhythmic medication that slows conduction and decreases excitability, conduction velocity, and automaticity. The nurse needs to monitor the client's vital signs for changes and cardiac rhythm for the development of a new or a worsening dysrhythmia. The remaining options are components of standard care. .A client has just returned from the cardiac catheterization laboratory. The left-sided femoral vessel was used as the access site. How should the nurse position the client? 1.Knee chest, with the foot of the bed elevated 2.Supine, with the head of the bed elevated 45 to 90 degrees 3.Semi Fowler's, with the knees placed on top of 1 pillow 4.Supine, with the head of the bed elevated about 15 degrees - Answer-4 Rationale:Following cardiac catheterization, the extremity used for catheter insertion is kept straight for 4 to 6 hours. If the femoral artery was used, strict bed rest is necessary for 6 to 12 hours. The client may turn from side to side. The head of the bed is not elevated more than 15 degrees (unless otherwise prescribed) to prevent kinking of the blood vessel at the groin and possible arterial occlusion. .A client has received antidysrhythmic therapy for the treatment of premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). The nurse evaluates this therapy as most effective if which finding is noted with regard to the PVCs? 1.They occur in pairs. 2.They appear to be multifocal. 3.They fall on the second half of the T wave. 4.They decrease to a frequency of less than 6 per minute. - Answer-4 Rationale:PVCs are considered dangerous when they are frequent (more than 6 per minute), occur in pairs or couplets, are multifocal (multiform), or fall on the T wave. In each of these instances, the client's cardiac rhythm is likely to degenerate into ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation, both of which are potentially deadly dysrhythmias. .A client in cardiogenic shock had an intra-aortic balloon pump inserted 24 hours earlier via the left femoral approach. The nurse notes that the client's left foot is cool and mottled and the left pedal pulse is weak. Which action should the nurse take? 1.Call the health care provider immediately. 2.Document these findings, which are expected. 3.Re-evaluate the neurovascular status in 1 hour. 4.Increase the rate of the intravenous nitroglycerin infusion - Answer-1 Rationale:The nursing interventions for the client with an intra-aortic balloon pump are the same as for any client who has had cardiovascular surgery. The peripheral circulation to the affected limb is monitored for signs of occlusion, such as coolness, mottling, pain, tingling, and decreased or absent distal pulse. Adverse changes are reported immediately. The remaining options are incorrect.