WGU D027 Package Deal:D027: WGU D027 Exam: WGU
D027 Pathopharmacology:WGU D027 Test
Preparation:WGU D027 OA Exam :WGU D027 Practice
Test : Latest Updated A+ Score Solutions
Which of the following is not a cellular function? - ANSWERCombustion -
All living cells must absorb and metabolize sources of energy, excrete waste and by-
products of those processes, and reproduce to continue offspring. Pyrotechnic
processes (i.e. combustion) are generally metaphorical.
What are mitochondria responsible for? - ANSWEREnergy production -
Mitochondria are the energy production organelles of the cell responsible for the
major metabolic processes of creating units of energy (e.g., ATP).
Which if the following can cause edema? - ANSWERIncreased lymphatic pressure -
Decreased vascular and lymphatic pressure does not generally result in the
movement and accumulation of fluid into extravascular spaces. Increased plasma
pressure in the vascular results in hypertension, while increased lymphatic pressure
will readily result in the pooling of lymphatic drainage into third spaces (i.e. edema).
Which of the following best describes the result of cellular reproduction? -
ANSWERTwo diploid cells, called daughter cells, are produced -
The resultant offspring of cellular reproduction is the creation of two daughter cells
after the completion of mitosis or meiosis. Interphase is the longest period that a cell
spends its life cycle and is the preparatory stage before cellular reproduction.
Anaphase is the separation of genetic materials to the opposing centromeres of the
cell, followed by telophase.
What indicates hypokalemia? - ANSWERSerum K decreases to less than 3.5 -
Normal serum potassium (K), also known as eukalemia, is generally 3.5-5.5 mEq/L,
with some variations of +/- 0.1-0.3 mEq/L depending on the laboratory testing, age,
and other potential patient-specific conditions and variations. Alterations in fluid
volume or the administration of a supplement alone do not necessarily contribute to
the development of hypokalemia.
What is an example of both hyperplasia and hypertrophy? - ANSWERUterine
enlargement due to pregnancy -
Hyperplasia is the increase in the number of cells of an organ or tissue, while
hypertrophy is the enlargement of the cells of a given organ or tissue without a
change in the number of cells. Muscle cells grow and enlarge (hypertrophy) in
response to increased work or stress from exercise or increased cardiovascular
pressures. When a liver is damaged or part of it is removed, it is the one internal
solid organ capable of regeneration to repair itself creating more cells (hyperplasia).
,During pregnancy, the uterus must both grow to create more cells and enlarge those
existing cells in preparation for the support of a fetus.
What regulates the sodium balance? - ANSWERAldosterone -
Aldosterone is a regulatory hormone produced by the adrenal glands to affect the
kidneys' regulation of sodium, potassium, and water excretion.
What is the alteration if the extracellular fluid volume is less than normal? -
ANSWERHypotonic -
In hypotonic states, the cell size is increased as a result of water moving from the
extracellular fluid (ECF) into the cell to increase intracellular fluid. Iso- or normotonic
states are a balanced state between intra- and extracellular fluid volumes.
Hypertonic states cause water to shift out of the cell to increase the ECF above
normal.
When in excess, what do buffers absorb? - ANSWERHydrogen -
Excesses of acid or base, H+ or hydroxyl ion (OH−), are absorbed for the purpose of
maintaining pH homeostasis (pH of 7.38-7.42)
Which of the following would a patient with metabolic acidosis have? - ANSWERpH
below 7.35; Bicarbonate level below 22 mEq/L -
The diagnosis of metabolic acidosis requires that the testing of arterial blood finds
that the pH is less than 7.35 and the bicarbonate level is less than 22 mEq/L.
What is the process by which RNA directs the synthesis of polypeptides? -
ANSWERTranslation -
Translation refers to this process. Transcription is another process in which RNA is
synthesized. Mutation means genetic material has been modified through
inheritance. Creation is a term that does not apply in this context.
What is the recurrence rate for autosomal dominant disease? - ANSWER50% -
For a couple in which one or both partners are affected by the disease, the chance of
each child being heterozygous affected is 50%.
Which of the following statements is true about autosomal recessive disease? -
ANSWERIt affects both men and women equally -
A criterion for recognizing the inheritance of an autosomal recessive disease is that
men and women will be affected by it in equal measure.
What is the proportion of the population affected by a disease at the specific point in
time? - ANSWERPrevalence rate -
Incidence rate refers to how many new cases there are of a disease within a period
of time divided by the number of the population's individuals. The prevalence rate is
affected by the incidence rate and how long the affected patients survive. Risk factor
is anything that could lead to disease. Relative risk is the measure of a risk factor
effect.
,Which of the following should be completed when a disease is multifactorial but has
a larger genetic component? - ANSWERGet a thorough family history -
Environment and lifestyle choices may influence a disease, but diseases such as
breast cancer are hereditary, so the family history should be reviewed.
Which action is the purpose of the inflammatory process? - ANSWERTo destroy
foreign, invasive microorganisms -
The general purpose of inflammation is to initiate the destruction of foreign or
invasive organisms. As a secondary effect, it increases the healing and immune
response processes of the body.
What causes edema that occurs during the inflammatory process? -
ANSWERIncreased vascular permeability -
Increased pressure in the vasculature secondary to the vasodilatory effects of
inflammation will result in the leakage of fluid into third spaces (i.e., edema).
Previousquestion
In what structure do B lymphocytes mature and become B cells? - ANSWERBone
marrow -
The bone marrow is where immature immune cells, such as B and T lymphocytes,
reside to mature into B cells. After this maturation process, these cells migrate to
other organ sites such as the thyroid, spleen, and thymus to enter their final stages
of differentiation and development.
Which type of immunity occurs when antibodies are transferred from donor to
recipient? - ANSWERPassive acquired immunity -
Active immune processes are the self-originating processes of the immune system
that occur from (acquired) or without (innate) prior exogenous simulation or
exposure to foreign antigens. Passive immunity is stabilized. Existing immune
responses that are present with or without simulation can arise or be created from
oneself (innate) or acquired from an outside source (e.g. donor antibodies).
What does T-cell activity cause in older adults? - ANSWERIncreased susceptibility for
infection -
As the human body ages, the immune system's effectiveness to coordinate
responses to pathogens and other foreign antigens wanes and the risk for disease
increases.
What is a dermatitis caused by prolonged exposure to chemicals such as acids or
soaps also known as? - ANSWERIrritant contact dermatitis -
Prolonged, superficial skin exposure to foreign irritants (e.g., acids or soaps) is a
manifestation of an innate, local inflammatory response. The conditions of allergic,
stasis, and atopic dermatitis involve more systemic processes of the immune system
and vasculature.
Which of the following is a self-limiting disease associated with Herpes type viruses
and a herald patch? - ANSWERPityriasis rosea -
, Lichen planus, acne vulgaris, and erythema multiforme are conditions generally
associated with or caused by autoimmune dysregulation, bacteria, and varieties of
foreign antigen (medications, virus, etc.). Pityriasis rosea in particular is associated
with and triggered by Herpes viruses, manifesting itself as a herald patch.
What is a furuncle? - ANSWERAn infection of the hair follicle that extends to the
surrounding tissue -
Abscess, dermis, and fungal infections are generally more widespread or larger
processes that require broad or systemic treatment. A furuncle, though
uncomfortable to painful, is a generally localized infection that is self-resolving or
that requires local, minor treatment.
What type of lesion may be malignant in the form of squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)?
- ANSWERActinic keratosis -
Actinic keratosis, which is caused by exposure to UV radiation, is a precursor lesion
of SCC
What type of abnormal cell growth does carcinoma refer to? - ANSWEREpithelial
cells -
Carcinoma refers to dysplastic epithelial cells that have penetrated the entire
thickness of the epithelium into the basement membrane.
What is a characteristic of a malignant tumor? - ANSWERAbsence of normal tissue
organization -
Healthy tissue is made up of non-cancerous cells that are well-differentiated,
connected via a well-organized stroma and that stay put. Malignant tumors lack
those characteristics as well as normal tissue organization.
Which lifestyle factor has not been linked to the development of cancer? -
ANSWERExtreme exercise -
Tobacco use, obesity, and alcohol consumption are causal for numerous cancers,
which can be prevented. Exercise helps prevent colon cancer and likely helps prevent
endometrial, breast, and other cancers as well.
Which pediatric malignancy is linked to the family of origin? - ANSWERWilms tumor -
Wilms tumor is kidney cancer in childhood caused by inherited genes. The main
causes of liver cancer are hepatitis, fatty liver disease, and alcohol use. The main
cause of cervical cancer is HPV infection. Leukemia is caused by mutations to
hematopoietic stem cells.
Which of the following drugs is classified as hormonal treatment for breast cancer? -
ANSWERTamoxifen -
Lapatinib is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor. Paclitaxil is an antimicrotubule agent.
Rituximab is a CD20-directed cytolytic monoclonal antibody. Tamoxifen is an anti-
estrogen medication used in the treatment of estrogen-linked breast cancer.
D027 Pathopharmacology:WGU D027 Test
Preparation:WGU D027 OA Exam :WGU D027 Practice
Test : Latest Updated A+ Score Solutions
Which of the following is not a cellular function? - ANSWERCombustion -
All living cells must absorb and metabolize sources of energy, excrete waste and by-
products of those processes, and reproduce to continue offspring. Pyrotechnic
processes (i.e. combustion) are generally metaphorical.
What are mitochondria responsible for? - ANSWEREnergy production -
Mitochondria are the energy production organelles of the cell responsible for the
major metabolic processes of creating units of energy (e.g., ATP).
Which if the following can cause edema? - ANSWERIncreased lymphatic pressure -
Decreased vascular and lymphatic pressure does not generally result in the
movement and accumulation of fluid into extravascular spaces. Increased plasma
pressure in the vascular results in hypertension, while increased lymphatic pressure
will readily result in the pooling of lymphatic drainage into third spaces (i.e. edema).
Which of the following best describes the result of cellular reproduction? -
ANSWERTwo diploid cells, called daughter cells, are produced -
The resultant offspring of cellular reproduction is the creation of two daughter cells
after the completion of mitosis or meiosis. Interphase is the longest period that a cell
spends its life cycle and is the preparatory stage before cellular reproduction.
Anaphase is the separation of genetic materials to the opposing centromeres of the
cell, followed by telophase.
What indicates hypokalemia? - ANSWERSerum K decreases to less than 3.5 -
Normal serum potassium (K), also known as eukalemia, is generally 3.5-5.5 mEq/L,
with some variations of +/- 0.1-0.3 mEq/L depending on the laboratory testing, age,
and other potential patient-specific conditions and variations. Alterations in fluid
volume or the administration of a supplement alone do not necessarily contribute to
the development of hypokalemia.
What is an example of both hyperplasia and hypertrophy? - ANSWERUterine
enlargement due to pregnancy -
Hyperplasia is the increase in the number of cells of an organ or tissue, while
hypertrophy is the enlargement of the cells of a given organ or tissue without a
change in the number of cells. Muscle cells grow and enlarge (hypertrophy) in
response to increased work or stress from exercise or increased cardiovascular
pressures. When a liver is damaged or part of it is removed, it is the one internal
solid organ capable of regeneration to repair itself creating more cells (hyperplasia).
,During pregnancy, the uterus must both grow to create more cells and enlarge those
existing cells in preparation for the support of a fetus.
What regulates the sodium balance? - ANSWERAldosterone -
Aldosterone is a regulatory hormone produced by the adrenal glands to affect the
kidneys' regulation of sodium, potassium, and water excretion.
What is the alteration if the extracellular fluid volume is less than normal? -
ANSWERHypotonic -
In hypotonic states, the cell size is increased as a result of water moving from the
extracellular fluid (ECF) into the cell to increase intracellular fluid. Iso- or normotonic
states are a balanced state between intra- and extracellular fluid volumes.
Hypertonic states cause water to shift out of the cell to increase the ECF above
normal.
When in excess, what do buffers absorb? - ANSWERHydrogen -
Excesses of acid or base, H+ or hydroxyl ion (OH−), are absorbed for the purpose of
maintaining pH homeostasis (pH of 7.38-7.42)
Which of the following would a patient with metabolic acidosis have? - ANSWERpH
below 7.35; Bicarbonate level below 22 mEq/L -
The diagnosis of metabolic acidosis requires that the testing of arterial blood finds
that the pH is less than 7.35 and the bicarbonate level is less than 22 mEq/L.
What is the process by which RNA directs the synthesis of polypeptides? -
ANSWERTranslation -
Translation refers to this process. Transcription is another process in which RNA is
synthesized. Mutation means genetic material has been modified through
inheritance. Creation is a term that does not apply in this context.
What is the recurrence rate for autosomal dominant disease? - ANSWER50% -
For a couple in which one or both partners are affected by the disease, the chance of
each child being heterozygous affected is 50%.
Which of the following statements is true about autosomal recessive disease? -
ANSWERIt affects both men and women equally -
A criterion for recognizing the inheritance of an autosomal recessive disease is that
men and women will be affected by it in equal measure.
What is the proportion of the population affected by a disease at the specific point in
time? - ANSWERPrevalence rate -
Incidence rate refers to how many new cases there are of a disease within a period
of time divided by the number of the population's individuals. The prevalence rate is
affected by the incidence rate and how long the affected patients survive. Risk factor
is anything that could lead to disease. Relative risk is the measure of a risk factor
effect.
,Which of the following should be completed when a disease is multifactorial but has
a larger genetic component? - ANSWERGet a thorough family history -
Environment and lifestyle choices may influence a disease, but diseases such as
breast cancer are hereditary, so the family history should be reviewed.
Which action is the purpose of the inflammatory process? - ANSWERTo destroy
foreign, invasive microorganisms -
The general purpose of inflammation is to initiate the destruction of foreign or
invasive organisms. As a secondary effect, it increases the healing and immune
response processes of the body.
What causes edema that occurs during the inflammatory process? -
ANSWERIncreased vascular permeability -
Increased pressure in the vasculature secondary to the vasodilatory effects of
inflammation will result in the leakage of fluid into third spaces (i.e., edema).
Previousquestion
In what structure do B lymphocytes mature and become B cells? - ANSWERBone
marrow -
The bone marrow is where immature immune cells, such as B and T lymphocytes,
reside to mature into B cells. After this maturation process, these cells migrate to
other organ sites such as the thyroid, spleen, and thymus to enter their final stages
of differentiation and development.
Which type of immunity occurs when antibodies are transferred from donor to
recipient? - ANSWERPassive acquired immunity -
Active immune processes are the self-originating processes of the immune system
that occur from (acquired) or without (innate) prior exogenous simulation or
exposure to foreign antigens. Passive immunity is stabilized. Existing immune
responses that are present with or without simulation can arise or be created from
oneself (innate) or acquired from an outside source (e.g. donor antibodies).
What does T-cell activity cause in older adults? - ANSWERIncreased susceptibility for
infection -
As the human body ages, the immune system's effectiveness to coordinate
responses to pathogens and other foreign antigens wanes and the risk for disease
increases.
What is a dermatitis caused by prolonged exposure to chemicals such as acids or
soaps also known as? - ANSWERIrritant contact dermatitis -
Prolonged, superficial skin exposure to foreign irritants (e.g., acids or soaps) is a
manifestation of an innate, local inflammatory response. The conditions of allergic,
stasis, and atopic dermatitis involve more systemic processes of the immune system
and vasculature.
Which of the following is a self-limiting disease associated with Herpes type viruses
and a herald patch? - ANSWERPityriasis rosea -
, Lichen planus, acne vulgaris, and erythema multiforme are conditions generally
associated with or caused by autoimmune dysregulation, bacteria, and varieties of
foreign antigen (medications, virus, etc.). Pityriasis rosea in particular is associated
with and triggered by Herpes viruses, manifesting itself as a herald patch.
What is a furuncle? - ANSWERAn infection of the hair follicle that extends to the
surrounding tissue -
Abscess, dermis, and fungal infections are generally more widespread or larger
processes that require broad or systemic treatment. A furuncle, though
uncomfortable to painful, is a generally localized infection that is self-resolving or
that requires local, minor treatment.
What type of lesion may be malignant in the form of squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)?
- ANSWERActinic keratosis -
Actinic keratosis, which is caused by exposure to UV radiation, is a precursor lesion
of SCC
What type of abnormal cell growth does carcinoma refer to? - ANSWEREpithelial
cells -
Carcinoma refers to dysplastic epithelial cells that have penetrated the entire
thickness of the epithelium into the basement membrane.
What is a characteristic of a malignant tumor? - ANSWERAbsence of normal tissue
organization -
Healthy tissue is made up of non-cancerous cells that are well-differentiated,
connected via a well-organized stroma and that stay put. Malignant tumors lack
those characteristics as well as normal tissue organization.
Which lifestyle factor has not been linked to the development of cancer? -
ANSWERExtreme exercise -
Tobacco use, obesity, and alcohol consumption are causal for numerous cancers,
which can be prevented. Exercise helps prevent colon cancer and likely helps prevent
endometrial, breast, and other cancers as well.
Which pediatric malignancy is linked to the family of origin? - ANSWERWilms tumor -
Wilms tumor is kidney cancer in childhood caused by inherited genes. The main
causes of liver cancer are hepatitis, fatty liver disease, and alcohol use. The main
cause of cervical cancer is HPV infection. Leukemia is caused by mutations to
hematopoietic stem cells.
Which of the following drugs is classified as hormonal treatment for breast cancer? -
ANSWERTamoxifen -
Lapatinib is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor. Paclitaxil is an antimicrotubule agent.
Rituximab is a CD20-directed cytolytic monoclonal antibody. Tamoxifen is an anti-
estrogen medication used in the treatment of estrogen-linked breast cancer.
