EMT chapter 5 medical terminology Latest Editions
With Complete Solutions /
4 training and licensure levels - ANSWERemergency medical responder
emergency medical technician
advanced EMT
paramedic
emergency response guidebook - ANSWERResource detailing common hazards and
proper responses
emergency move - ANSWERThe technique that an EMT uses to quickly remove a
patient from danger
urgent move - ANSWERpatient move that should be done quickly yet without any
compromise of spinal integrity.
Emergency medical responder - ANSWERvery basic training and provides care before
the ambulance arrives. e.g. law enforcement, fire fighters, park rangers, ski
patrollers.
EMT - ANSWERBLS training with automated external defibrillator, use of airway
adjuncts and assisting patients with certain medications. requires 150 hrs.
AEMT - ANSWERhas some training in ALS such as intravenous therapy and
administration of some drugs. 200-400 hrs.
paramedic - ANSWERhas extensive training in ALS, including endotracheal
intubation, emergency pharmacology, cardiac monitoring and other skills. 1000-1300
hrs.
NHTSA - ANSWERNational Highway Traffic Safety Administration. Every state follows
the guidelines recommended for EMS training standards.
scene size-up - ANSWERthe EMT's initial evaluation of a scene to which he has been
called
patient assessment - ANSWERobjective evaluation and determination of the status
of patient
americans with disabilities act (ADA) of 1990 - ANSWERprohibits discrimination
against the disabled
national EMS scope of practice model - ANSWERProvides guidelines for skills at each
level of EMS training. federal level
,medical director - ANSWERCan limit the scope of practice but cannot expand beyond
state laws. described in a set of written standing orders and protocols.
automated external defibrillator (AED) - ANSWERdetect treatable life-threatening
cardiac dysrhythmias and deliver shock
public safety access point - ANSWERCommunications center where dispatchers
dispatch emergency workers
emergency medical dispatch (emd) - ANSWERassist disptchers in providing callers
with vital instructions to help them deal with a medical emergency until ems arrive
primary service area - ANSWERDesignated area in which the EMS service is
responsible for providing prehospital care
medical control - ANSWEREither off-line (indirect) or online (direct), as authorized by
the medical director. online is direction given over the phone or radio directly to the
physician. offline is standing orders and protocols.
mobile integrated healthcare(MIH) - ANSWERnew method of delivering health care
that uses the prehospital spectrum. improved access to healthcare at an affordable
price. within community rather than doctor or hospital.
quality control - ANSWERstaff meets appropriate medical care standards
cqi - ANSWERContinous Quality Improvement. internal and external reviews of ems
system
HIPAA - ANSWERrule establishes regulations for the use and disclosure of protected
health information
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
stress - ANSWERA physical and mental response to a challenging or threatening
situation.
infectious disease - ANSWERA disease caused by the presence of a living thing in the
body
communicable disease - ANSWERA disease that can be spread from one person or
species to another.
fomite - ANSWERA physical object that serves to transmit an infectious agent from
person to person.
ohsa - ANSWEROccupational Safety and Health Administration
a department of labor that sets and enforces occupation health and safety rules.
,standard precautions - ANSWERRules developed by the CDC to prevent the spread of
infection
tachycardic - ANSWERpatient with a rapid beating of the heart, defined as over 100
beats/minute
diaphoretic - ANSWERSweaty
acute stress reaction - ANSWERreaction to stress that occurs during a stressful
situation
delayed stress reaction - ANSWERReaction to stress that occurs after a stressful
situation.
cumulative stress reaction - ANSWERprolonged or excessive stress
PTSD - ANSWERinitials representing a disorder in which one relives painfully stressful
events
CISM - ANSWERcritical incident stress management
Confronts the response to critical incidents and defuses them
quid pro quo - ANSWERSomething given with the expectation of receiving something
in return.
implied consent - ANSWERassumption on behalf of a person unable to give consent
that he or she would have done so. also known as emergency doctrine-allows family
to give consent. .
expressed consent - ANSWERConsent that is clearly and unmistakably stated
involuntary consent - ANSWER. Applies to mentally incompetent adults
. Consent is obtained from a third party
patient autonomy - ANSWERability and right of patients to make independent
decisions regarding medical care
decision making capacity - ANSWERability of a patient to understand the information
you are providing paired with the ability to process the info and make an informed
choice regarding medical care
DNR - ANSWERdo not resuscitate - an order on a patients medical chart informing to
not revive if dies. must state patients medical problems, signature of patient,
signature of physician, and not expired
, advanced directive - ANSWERDecisions made by competent individuals about their
future health care. POLST and MOLST, state acceptable interventions. may have
named surrogates to make their decisions.
POLST - ANSWERPhysician order for life sustaining treatment
MOLST - ANSWERmedical orders for life sustaining treatment
health care proxy - ANSWERdurable power of attorney issued for purposes of health
care decisions only
medical alert identification - ANSWERbracelet, necklace, keychain or card. indicate
DNR, allergies or medical conditions.
scope of practice - ANSWERThe range of clinical procedures and activities that are
allowed by state law for a profession. medical diretor further outlines scope by
developing protocols and standing orders.
standards of care - ANSWERskills and learning commonly possessed by members of a
profession. what a reasonable emt in the same situation would do.
duty to act - ANSWEREMRs legal responsibility to respond promptly to scene and
provide medical care. once ambulance responds to call and once weve started
patient care
negligence - ANSWERFailure to give care that is normally expected, resulting in injury
to another person. 4 elements need to apply, duty, breah of action, damages,
causation.
abandonment - ANSWERThe discontinuation of medical care without proper notice.
happens on scene and at ED. always get signature. finish what you started unless you
give patient to equally or more competent EMS.
Assault - ANSWERAny word or action intended to make another person fearful of
immediate physical harm. e.g. restraint
battery - ANSWERharmful or offensive touching. e.g. providing care without consent
kidnapping - ANSWERthe unlawful removal or restraint of a person against his or her
will. e.g. transport against will
false imprisonment - ANSWERa restraint of a person in a bounded area without
justification or consent. e.g. patient removes consent but you dont let him leave
ambulance
defamation - ANSWERAct of harming or ruining another's reputation
With Complete Solutions /
4 training and licensure levels - ANSWERemergency medical responder
emergency medical technician
advanced EMT
paramedic
emergency response guidebook - ANSWERResource detailing common hazards and
proper responses
emergency move - ANSWERThe technique that an EMT uses to quickly remove a
patient from danger
urgent move - ANSWERpatient move that should be done quickly yet without any
compromise of spinal integrity.
Emergency medical responder - ANSWERvery basic training and provides care before
the ambulance arrives. e.g. law enforcement, fire fighters, park rangers, ski
patrollers.
EMT - ANSWERBLS training with automated external defibrillator, use of airway
adjuncts and assisting patients with certain medications. requires 150 hrs.
AEMT - ANSWERhas some training in ALS such as intravenous therapy and
administration of some drugs. 200-400 hrs.
paramedic - ANSWERhas extensive training in ALS, including endotracheal
intubation, emergency pharmacology, cardiac monitoring and other skills. 1000-1300
hrs.
NHTSA - ANSWERNational Highway Traffic Safety Administration. Every state follows
the guidelines recommended for EMS training standards.
scene size-up - ANSWERthe EMT's initial evaluation of a scene to which he has been
called
patient assessment - ANSWERobjective evaluation and determination of the status
of patient
americans with disabilities act (ADA) of 1990 - ANSWERprohibits discrimination
against the disabled
national EMS scope of practice model - ANSWERProvides guidelines for skills at each
level of EMS training. federal level
,medical director - ANSWERCan limit the scope of practice but cannot expand beyond
state laws. described in a set of written standing orders and protocols.
automated external defibrillator (AED) - ANSWERdetect treatable life-threatening
cardiac dysrhythmias and deliver shock
public safety access point - ANSWERCommunications center where dispatchers
dispatch emergency workers
emergency medical dispatch (emd) - ANSWERassist disptchers in providing callers
with vital instructions to help them deal with a medical emergency until ems arrive
primary service area - ANSWERDesignated area in which the EMS service is
responsible for providing prehospital care
medical control - ANSWEREither off-line (indirect) or online (direct), as authorized by
the medical director. online is direction given over the phone or radio directly to the
physician. offline is standing orders and protocols.
mobile integrated healthcare(MIH) - ANSWERnew method of delivering health care
that uses the prehospital spectrum. improved access to healthcare at an affordable
price. within community rather than doctor or hospital.
quality control - ANSWERstaff meets appropriate medical care standards
cqi - ANSWERContinous Quality Improvement. internal and external reviews of ems
system
HIPAA - ANSWERrule establishes regulations for the use and disclosure of protected
health information
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
stress - ANSWERA physical and mental response to a challenging or threatening
situation.
infectious disease - ANSWERA disease caused by the presence of a living thing in the
body
communicable disease - ANSWERA disease that can be spread from one person or
species to another.
fomite - ANSWERA physical object that serves to transmit an infectious agent from
person to person.
ohsa - ANSWEROccupational Safety and Health Administration
a department of labor that sets and enforces occupation health and safety rules.
,standard precautions - ANSWERRules developed by the CDC to prevent the spread of
infection
tachycardic - ANSWERpatient with a rapid beating of the heart, defined as over 100
beats/minute
diaphoretic - ANSWERSweaty
acute stress reaction - ANSWERreaction to stress that occurs during a stressful
situation
delayed stress reaction - ANSWERReaction to stress that occurs after a stressful
situation.
cumulative stress reaction - ANSWERprolonged or excessive stress
PTSD - ANSWERinitials representing a disorder in which one relives painfully stressful
events
CISM - ANSWERcritical incident stress management
Confronts the response to critical incidents and defuses them
quid pro quo - ANSWERSomething given with the expectation of receiving something
in return.
implied consent - ANSWERassumption on behalf of a person unable to give consent
that he or she would have done so. also known as emergency doctrine-allows family
to give consent. .
expressed consent - ANSWERConsent that is clearly and unmistakably stated
involuntary consent - ANSWER. Applies to mentally incompetent adults
. Consent is obtained from a third party
patient autonomy - ANSWERability and right of patients to make independent
decisions regarding medical care
decision making capacity - ANSWERability of a patient to understand the information
you are providing paired with the ability to process the info and make an informed
choice regarding medical care
DNR - ANSWERdo not resuscitate - an order on a patients medical chart informing to
not revive if dies. must state patients medical problems, signature of patient,
signature of physician, and not expired
, advanced directive - ANSWERDecisions made by competent individuals about their
future health care. POLST and MOLST, state acceptable interventions. may have
named surrogates to make their decisions.
POLST - ANSWERPhysician order for life sustaining treatment
MOLST - ANSWERmedical orders for life sustaining treatment
health care proxy - ANSWERdurable power of attorney issued for purposes of health
care decisions only
medical alert identification - ANSWERbracelet, necklace, keychain or card. indicate
DNR, allergies or medical conditions.
scope of practice - ANSWERThe range of clinical procedures and activities that are
allowed by state law for a profession. medical diretor further outlines scope by
developing protocols and standing orders.
standards of care - ANSWERskills and learning commonly possessed by members of a
profession. what a reasonable emt in the same situation would do.
duty to act - ANSWEREMRs legal responsibility to respond promptly to scene and
provide medical care. once ambulance responds to call and once weve started
patient care
negligence - ANSWERFailure to give care that is normally expected, resulting in injury
to another person. 4 elements need to apply, duty, breah of action, damages,
causation.
abandonment - ANSWERThe discontinuation of medical care without proper notice.
happens on scene and at ED. always get signature. finish what you started unless you
give patient to equally or more competent EMS.
Assault - ANSWERAny word or action intended to make another person fearful of
immediate physical harm. e.g. restraint
battery - ANSWERharmful or offensive touching. e.g. providing care without consent
kidnapping - ANSWERthe unlawful removal or restraint of a person against his or her
will. e.g. transport against will
false imprisonment - ANSWERa restraint of a person in a bounded area without
justification or consent. e.g. patient removes consent but you dont let him leave
ambulance
defamation - ANSWERAct of harming or ruining another's reputation
