EXAM 2 WITH 250 LATEST UPDATED
EXAM QUESTIONS AND ACCURATE
ANSWERS | RATIONALES ALREADY
GRADED A+ (NR 509 LATEST EXAM
VERSION | BRAND NEW!!)
An overweight 26-year-old public servant presents to the Emergency Department with
12 hours of intense abdominal pain, light-headedness, and a fainting episode that finally
prompted her to seek medical attention. She has a strong family history of gallstones
and is concerned about this possibility. She has not had any vomiting or diarrhea. She
had a normal bowel movement this morning. Her β-human chorionic gonadotropin (β-
hCG) is positive at triage. She reports that her last period was 10 weeks ago. Her vital
signs at triage are pulse, 118; blood pressure, 86/68; respiratory rate, 20/min; oxygen
saturation, 99%; and temperature, 37.3ºC orally. The clinician performs an abdominal
exam prior to her pelvic exam and, on palpation of her abdomen, finds involuntary
rigidity and rebound tenderness. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Ruptured tubal (or ectopic) pregnancy
b. Acute cholecystitis
c. Ruptured appendix
,d. Perf - ANSWER- a. Ruptured tubal (or ectopic) pregnancy
Rationale: The constellation of abdominal pain, syncope, tachycardia, hypotension,
positive β-hCG, and findings suggestive of peritoneal inflammation/irritation strongly
suggest a ruptured ectopic pregnancy with significant intra-abdominal bleeding leading
to peritoneal signs. This case is emergent and requires immediate treatment of her
hypotension and presumed blood loss as well as gynecological consult for emergent
surgery
A 63-year-old janitor with a history of adenomatous colonic polyps presents for a well
visit. Basic labs are performed to screen for diabetes mellitus and dyslipidemia.
Electrolytes and liver enzymes were also measured. His labs are all normal expect for
moderate elevations of aspartate aminotransferase, alanine aminotransferase, γ-
glutamyl transferase, and alkaline phosphatase as well as a mildly elevated total
bilirubin. He presents for a follow-up appointment and the clinician performs an
abdominal exam to assess his liver. Which of the following findings would be most
consistent with hepatomegaly?
a. Liver span of 11 cm at the midclavicular line
b. Liver span of 8 cm at the midsternal line
c. Dullness to percussion over a span of 11 cm at the midclavicular line
d. Dullness to percussion over a span of 8 cm at the midsternal line
,e. Liver palpable 3 cm below the right costal margin, mid clavicular line, on expirat -
ANSWER- e. Liver palpable 3 cm below the right costal margin, mid clavicular
line, on expiration
Rationale: The liver being palpable 3 cm below the right costal margin, midclavicular
line, would be considered normal on inspiration when the liver is pushed down into the
abdominal cavity on inspiration, but is abnormal on expiration.
A 63-year-old underweight administrative clerk with a 50-pack-year smoking history
presents with a several month history of recurrent epigastric abdominal discomfort. She
feels fairly well otherwise and denies any nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation.
She reports that a first cousin died from a ruptured aneurysm at age 68 years. Her vital
signs are pulse, 86; blood pressure, 148/92; respiratory rate, 16; oxygen saturation,
95%; and temperature, 36.2ºC. Her body mass index is 17.6. On exam, her abdominal
aorta is prominent, which is concerning for an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). Which
of the following is her most significant risk factor for an AAA?
a. Female gender
b. History of smoking
c. Underweight
d. Family history of ruptured aneurysm
e. Hypertension - ANSWER- b. History of smoking
, Rationale: History of smoking is her most significant risk factor for an AAA. Male
gender, not female gender, is considered as risk factor. Underweight is not a risk factor
for AAA. Family history of ruptured aneurysm is vague and could be a cerebral
aneurysm. Further, her family history is in a first-degree cousin not a first-degree
relative (biologic parents, siblings, and children). Hypertension could contribute to
atherosclerosis, which is a risk factor. Further, a diagnosis of hypertension is not based
on one elevated blood pressure reading.
A 76-year-old retired man with a history of prostate cancer and hypertension has been
screened annually for colon cancer using high sensitivity fecal occult blood testing
(FOBT). He presents for follow-up of his hypertension, during which the clinician scans
his chart to ensure he is up to date with his preventive health care. He has a positive
FOBT on one occasion at age 66 years and subsequently went for a colonoscopy.
Internal hemorrhoids and sigmoid diverticuli were found on colonoscopy. He has no
first-degree relatives with a history of colorectal cancer or adenomatous polyps. What
are the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) screening recommendations for
this patient?
a. Do not screen routinely
b. Continue annual FOBT screening until age 80 years
c. Continue annual FOBT screening until age 85 years
d. Repeat colonoscopy this year
e. Sigmoidoscopy every 5 years with FOBT every 3 years - ANSWER- a. Do not
screen routinely