Straighterline - MICRO 250 : Microbiology Exam 4 (latest 2022/23) complete solution guide.
MICRO 250 Microbiology - Exam 4. Question 1 Question text The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all of the following except ______. Select one: a. redness b. warmth c. swelling d. pain e. chills Question 2 Question text Based on new information from the Human Microbiome Project, the human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal biota Select one: a. before birth, in utero. b. during and immediately after birth. c. when a child first goes to school. d. when an infant gets its first infectious disease. e. during puberty. Question 3 Question text A second encounter with an allergen that causes a response is called the _____ dose. Select one: a. sensitizing b. provocative c. allergic d. hypersensitivity e. desensitizing Question 4 Question text The chemical agent/s that produce/s highly reactive hydroxyl-free radicals and also decomposes to O2 gas is ______. Select one: a. Cidex b. cationic detergents c. hydrogen peroxide d. chlorhexidine e. iodophors Question 5 Question text Which of the following is a direct contact method of microbe transmission? Select one: a. Fomites b. Water c. Droplet nuclei d. Aerosols e. Droplets Question 6 Question text The antibody-secreting progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called Select one: a. antibodies. b. sensitized T cells. c. activated macrophages. d. plasma cells. e. bursa cells. Question 7 Question text The method of removing vegetative microbial life forms and debris to reduce contamination to safe levels is termed ______. Select one: a. antisepsis b. disinfection c. sterilization d. decontamination e. sanitization Question 8 Question text Which of the following is not a structure used for bacterial adhesion? Select one: a. Fimbriae b. Surface proteins c. Specialized receptors d. Adhesive slime or capsules e. Cilia Question 9 Question text Why do researchers often include DNase in their antibiotic preparations to eliminate biofilms? Select one: a. The antibiotics cannot readily penetrate the extracellular debris, which often includes DNA from lysed cells. b. If the microbe's genome can be destroyed, the cell will die. c. Targeting the bacterial chromosome is the most effective way to kill biofilm bacteria. d. The antibiotics target the cell wall and the DNase targets the genome, effectively destroying the biofilm. Question 10 Question text During which response to the antigen do we display a latent period of no secretory antibody synthesis? Select one: a. Primary b. SecondaryTopic Question 11 Question text The difference between direct and indirect immunofluorescence testing is that Select one: a. Direct testing determines the identity of an unknown antigen in a patient sample, whereas indirect testing determines whether the patient has been exposed to an antigen as evidenced by the presence of antibodies in their sera. b. Indirect testing determines the identity of an unknown antigen in a patient sample, whereas direct testing determines whether the patient has been exposed to an antigen as evidenced by the presence of antibodies in their sera. c. Direct testing determines the identity of an unknown antibody in a patient sample, whereas indirect testing determines whether the patient is infected with a specific antigen. d. Direct testing adds antibodies directly to antigens, whereas indirect testing cultures the organisms first and adds fluorescent tags to the patient sample. Question 12 Question text Which of the following is not true of glutaraldehyde? Select one: a. It is classified as a carcinogen. b. It inactivates viruses. c. It does not damage plastics. d. It cross-links proteins on cell surfaces. e. It inactivates endospores in 3 hours. Question 13 Question text Plasma cells Select one: a. secrete antibodies. b. function in allergic reactions. c. directly destroy target cells. d. suppress immune reactions. e. activate B cells and other T cells. Question 14 Question text Each of the following is a term reflecting a process involved in the migration of white blood cells except ______. Select one: a. chemotaxis b. diapedesis c. motility d. vasodilation e. phagocytosis Question 15 Question text Penicillins and cephalosporins Select one: a. destroy peptidoglycan. b. are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis. c. attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis. d. damage cell membranes. e. block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules. Question 16 Question text A method of identification using immobilized, known antigens to identify unknown antibodies and vice versa, where the presence of the agent being tested for immediately brings about a color change is called ______. Select one: a. immunochromatography b. ELISA c. radioimmunoassay d. Western blotting Question 17 Question text During presentation of APC-bound antigen, macrophages and dendritic cells secrete the cytokine _____, which activates T helper cells. Select one: a. interferon b. interleukin-1 c. interleukin-2 d. histamine Question 18 Question text Side effects that occur in patient tissues while they are on antimicrobial drugs include all of the following, except Select one: a. development of resistance to the drug. b. hepatotoxicity. c. nephrotoxicity. d. diarrhea. e. deafness. Question 19 Question text Which of the following is not a possible outcome of a type I hypersensitivity reaction? Select one: a. Rhinitis b. Rashes c. Sneezing d. Diarrhea e. Contact dermatitis Question 20 Question text A type of monocyte that has long, thin processes to trap pathogens is a(n) ______. Select one: a. dendritic cell b. eosinophil c. macrophage d. platelet e. mast cell
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the human bod
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micro 250 microbiology exam 4
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the four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all of the following except
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based on new information from the human microbiome project
