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NR507 Final Exam 2024 / Week 8 Advanced Pathophysiology Exam: Expected Questions and Verified Answers (2024/2025) - Chamberlain (successus)

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NR507 Final Exam 2024 / Week 8 Advanced Pathophysiology Exam: Expected Questions and Verified Answers (2024/2025) - Chamberlain (successus)

Instelling
Pathophysiology
Vak
Pathophysiology

Voorbeeld van de inhoud

Question 1:

Which of the following is a hallmark feature of diabetic nephropathy?

A) Hypercalcemia
B) Proteinuria
C) Hypokalemia
D) Hyperglycemia

Answer: B) Proteinuria

Rationale: Diabetic nephropathy is characterized by damage to the kidneys due to prolonged
hyperglycemia, which leads to glomerular damage. One of the hallmark signs is proteinuria, where
excess protein (mainly albumin) leaks into the urine. Hypercalcemia, hypokalemia, and hyperglycemia
are not specific hallmarks of diabetic nephropathy.



Question 2:

Which of the following is a common cause of obstructive jaundice?

A) Cirrhosis
B) Hepatitis
C) Gallstones
D) Alcoholic liver disease

Answer: C) Gallstones

Rationale: Obstructive jaundice occurs when there is a blockage in the bile ducts, preventing the normal
excretion of bile. Gallstones are a common cause of this obstruction. Cirrhosis, hepatitis, and alcoholic
liver disease usually lead to hepatocellular or intrahepatic jaundice, not obstructive jaundice.



Question 3:

In the context of heart failure, which of the following compensatory mechanisms can contribute to
worsening symptoms?

A) Increased parasympathetic tone
B) Decreased renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system activity
C) Sympathetic nervous system activation
D) Vasodilation

Answer: C) Sympathetic nervous system activation

Rationale: In heart failure, the body attempts to compensate for decreased cardiac output by activating
the sympathetic nervous system. This results in increased heart rate, vasoconstriction, and fluid
retention, which can worsen heart failure symptoms. Parasympathetic tone and decreased renin-

,angiotensin-aldosterone activity are not typically compensatory in this scenario, and vasodilation would
generally reduce symptoms, not worsen them.



Question 4:

Which of the following is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) in adults?

A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Legionella pneumophila

Answer: A) Streptococcus pneumoniae

Rationale: Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in
adults. While Mycoplasma pneumoniae and Staphylococcus aureus can also cause pneumonia, they are
less common. Legionella pneumophila is a less frequent cause and is typically associated with outbreaks
and immunocompromised individuals.



Question 5:

A 45-year-old male presents with fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. He has a history of HIV and is
not currently on antiretroviral therapy. Physical exam reveals lymphadenopathy and
hepatosplenomegaly. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Tuberculosis
B) Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
C) HIV-associated Kaposi sarcoma
D) Cryptococcal meningitis

Answer: B) Non-Hodgkin lymphoma

Rationale: HIV-infected individuals are at increased risk for lymphoproliferative disorders, such as non-
Hodgkin lymphoma. The combination of fatigue, weight loss, night sweats, lymphadenopathy, and
hepatosplenomegaly in an immunocompromised patient strongly suggests this diagnosis. Tuberculosis is
a possibility but would not account for the full range of symptoms, and Kaposi sarcoma is less likely in
this case. Cryptococcal meningitis would primarily present with neurological symptoms.



Question 6:

Which of the following is a major pathophysiologic mechanism in the development of asthma?

A) Obstruction of the bronchial tree by mucus
B) Inflammation and bronchoconstriction due to immune responses

, C) Thickening of the alveolar walls
D) Destruction of the pulmonary capillaries

Answer: B) Inflammation and bronchoconstriction due to immune responses

Rationale: Asthma is primarily caused by inflammation of the airways and bronchoconstriction triggered
by immune responses to allergens or irritants. This leads to airway narrowing and difficulty breathing.
Obstruction due to mucus can occur, but it is secondary to inflammation. The other options (thickening
of alveolar walls and destruction of capillaries) are more relevant to conditions like chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD) or emphysema.



Question 7:

Which of the following lab findings is most commonly associated with acute pancreatitis?

A) Elevated serum amylase and lipase
B) Decreased serum glucose
C) Increased calcium levels
D) Decreased liver enzymes

Answer: A) Elevated serum amylase and lipase

Rationale: Acute pancreatitis is characterized by elevated levels of pancreatic enzymes, namely amylase
and lipase, in the serum. These enzymes leak into the bloodstream when pancreatic cells are injured.
Decreased glucose or calcium levels are not typical for acute pancreatitis, and liver enzymes are typically
normal unless there is concomitant liver damage.



Question 8:

Which of the following factors is most commonly associated with the development of osteoporosis?

A) Increased estrogen levels
B) Prolonged corticosteroid use
C) High calcium intake
D) Decreased physical activity

Answer: B) Prolonged corticosteroid use

Rationale: Prolonged use of corticosteroids is a well-known risk factor for osteoporosis. Corticosteroids
inhibit osteoblast function and increase bone resorption, leading to decreased bone density. Estrogen
has a protective effect on bone density, while high calcium intake and decreased physical activity are also
associated with bone health, but corticosteroid use is the strongest risk factor for osteoporosis.



Question 9:

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Pathophysiology

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