VTNE Prep: Laboratory Procedures Exam Questions and Answers

What is the morphology of Vibrio spp. bacteria? A. Bacillus B. Coccus C. Spirochete D. Coccobacillus - A. Bacillus All of the following are important functions of bacterial fimbriae, except: A. Attachment B. Locomotion C. Ion transport D. Antibiotic resistance - A. Attachment Bacterial endospores are: A. Resistant to heat and desiccation B. A form of asexual reproduction C. A consequence of mating D. Highly susceptible to antiseptics - A. Resistant to heat and desiccation Blood levels of total bilirubin will not be a significant finding in: A. Hepatocellular damage B. Bile duct injury or obstruction C. Hemolytic disorders D. Acute pancreatitis - D. Acute pancreatitis A bacterial genus can best be described as: A. Composed of one or more species B. Composed of classes C. Composed of families D. Belonging to a species - D. Belonging to a species An iodine scrub on skin would result in: A. Antisepsis B. Disinfection C. Fumigation D. Sterilization - A. Antisepsis Which of the following would be a prenatal route of pathogen transmission? A. Transfusion B. Contaminated food C. Droplet infection D. Direct contact - A. Transfusion Most bacteria grow best at a pH of: A. 1 B. 3 C. 9 D. 7 - D. 7 Which of the following is an important function of bacterial flagella? A. Attachment B. Locomotion C. DNA replication D. Ion transport - B. Locomotion Which parasite only uses the cat as its definitive host? A. Toxoplasma gondii B. Giardia lamblia C. Isospora rivolta D. Balantidium coli - A. Toxoplasma gondii ------- is the temperature that must be reached and maintained for 13 minutes in a stream autoclave to destroy microorganisms. A. 110 degrees celsius B. 121 degrees celsius C. 170 degrees celsius D. 240 degrees clesius - B. 121 degrees celsius With which of the following is the humoral immune system involved? A. Monocytes B. B cells C. T cells D. Erythrocytes - B. B cells Which of the following is a lentivirus? A. Coronavirus B. Feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV) C. Herpes virus D. Parvovirus - B. Feline immunodeficiency virus Which of the following is not a method of culturing animal viruses? A. Laboratory animal inoculation B. Cell culture C. Agar plate inoculation D. Embryonated egg inoculation - C. Agar plate inoculation What immunoglobulin is usally present in the greatest quantity? A. IgA B. IgD C. IgE D. IgG - D. IgG Blood levels of total bilirubin are used primarily to evaluate the function of the: A. Kidneys B. Liver C. Pancreas D. Bile ducts - B. Liver Phagocytes are a type of: A. Red blood cell B. White blood cell C. Platelet D. Antibody - B. White blood cell A hospital-acquired disease is known as: A. Endemic B. Nosocomial C. Eragasteric D. Iatrogenic - B. Nosocomial Leukokpenia is defined as: A. A decrease in white blood cells B. An increase in white blood cells C. A bone marrow disease D. A type of blood cancer - A. A decrease in white blood cells What laboratory test evaluates kidney function and is a breakdown product of protein? A. Glucose B. SGTP (ALT) C. Creatinine D. BUN - D. BUN The function of hemolysins is to: A.Coagulate blood B. Break down fibrin C. Destroy red blood cells D. Indicate a viral infection - C. Destroy red blood cells Nonrenal causes of increased levels of urea might include: A. The amount of carbohydrate ingested B. The amount of protein ingested C. Insufficient insulin D. Insufficient ADH - B. The amount of protein ingested A decrease in albumin may occur in cases experiencing: A. Chronic lover disease B. A carnivorous diet C. Gastroenteritis D. A vegetarian diet - C. Gastroenteritis To what color does "icteric serum" refer? A. Yellow B. Red C. Brown D. Green - A. Yellow What color are blood collection tubes that contain heparin? A. Purple B. Green C. Blue D. Gray - B. Green Which of the following substances is used to evaluate kidney filtration and function, is excreted, and the in reabsorbed? A. Urea B. Creatinine C. Glucose D. Sodium - A. Urea With significant dehydration in an otherwise healthy patient, which of the following would likely appear on a urinalysis and CBC? A. Increased urine SG and increased PCV B. Increased urine SG and decreased PCV C. Decreased urine SG and decreased PCV D. Decreased urine SG and increased PCV - A. Increased urine SG and increased PCV Water deprivation test should never be performed on patients with: A. Hich MCV B. Suspected sufficient ADH C. Dehydration D. Suspected tubular malfunction - C. Dehydration Glycosuria exists: A. When blood glucose levels exceed the renal threshold for absorption of glucose B. When blood glucose levels are lower than the renal threshold for absorption of glucose C. When urine glucose levels are lower than the renal threshold for absorption of glucose D. When urine glucose levels are higher than the serum threshold for absorption of glucose - A. When blood glucose levels exceed the renal threshold for absorption of glucose Horses typically have higher ----- values than other species. A. AST B. ALP C. ALT D. GGT - A. AST What blood chemistry test should be used to measure cholangiocyte damage? A. ALKP B. AST C.ALT D. GGT - D. GGT Electrolytes are commonly measured by what method? A. Ion-specific electrode B. Refractometry C. Adsorption D. Enzymatic digestion - A. Ion-specific electrodes A test that can be performed to help diagnose hyperthyroidism is: A. LH B. Cortisol C. Bile acids D. T4 - D. T4 When performing urinalysis testing, the sample should be analyzed within --- minutes, or refrigeration is required. A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40 - C. 30 For cytological evaluations of urine, which of the following conditions should be observed? A. The specimen should be refrigerated as soon as possible B. The specimen should be centrifuged as soon as possible C. The specimen may sit at room temperature for less than 6 hours D. The specimen may be frozen for later analysis - B. The specimen should be centrifuged as soon as possible The average urine specific gravity for a healthy adult dog is ------. A. 1.025 B. 1.035 C. 1.040 D. 1.045 - A. 1.025 The average urine specific gravity for a healthy adult cat is ------. A. 1.025 B. 1.030 C. 1.035 D. 1.040 - B. 1.030 Which of the following tests is not included in a routine CBC? A. Total WBC count B. Differential WBC count C. Total protein D. Reticulocyte count - D. Reticulocyte count Ketonuria is most commonly associated with what condition? A. Liver disease B. Urinary tract infection C. Renal failure D. Diabetes mellitus - D. Diabetes mellitus Hoover, a canine patient, was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection 2 weeks earlier and was placed on a course of amoxicillin. The veterinarian asked that he return for a recheck to ensure the infection has resolved. The collection method of choice in this patient would be" A. Catheterization B. Free catch C. Cystocentesis D. Manual expression - C. Cystocentesis Leukocytes in the urine sediment and a positive nitrite reaction on the urinary colorimetric strip provide presumptive evidence that the patient might have: A. Neoplasm B. Diabetic condition C. Renal failure D. Bacterial infection - D. Bacterial infection Aged urine samples left at room temperature and exposed to UV light may cause a false negative result in which one of the following biochemical tests? A. Ketones B. Protein C. Glucose D. Bilirubin - D. Bilirubin Which of the following is the best time to collect a urine sample to evaluate the specific gravity of a canine patient? A. First morning sample B. Midday sample C. Late afternoon sample D. Last sample of the day - A. First morning sample Mr. Downing has brought in a urine sample from Cleo, his 6-year-old female spayed cocker spaniel. The color of the urine appears red. On centrifugation of the sample, you find that the supernatant is now clear. What was the most likely cause of the red color? A. Hemoglobinuria B. Hematuria C. Myoglobinuria D. Uroglobinuria - B. Hematuria Urinary pH is not affected by the: A. Patient's diet B. Presence of bacteria in the urine C. Patient's acid-base status D. Presence of crystals in the urine - D. Presence of crystals in the urine Squamous epithelial cells are not normally seen in urine samples obtained by: A. Catheterization B. Manual expression C. Free catch D. Cystocentesis - D. Cystocentesis The two most common problems encountered in samples to be evaluated for clinical chemistry are: A. Coagulation and seperation B. Dilution and concentration C. Hemolysis and Lipemia D. EDTA and heparin - C. Hemolysis and lipemia What biochemical tests are not considered part of the primary hepatic profile? A. BUN and creatinine B. Cholestatic enzymes C. Hepatocellular leakage enzymes D. Total protein and albumin - A. BUN and creatinine A fecal smear can be stained for fat. An increased amount of fat is indicative of: A. Dyschezia B. Dysentery C. Steatorrhea D. Tenesmus - C. Steatorrhea Which is the correct method to use when performing a serum bile acids assay? A. Draw a blood sample on a fasting animal B. Draw a blood sample on an animal immediately after it eats a meal C. Draw a blood sample on a fasting animal and another sample 2 hours later D. Draw a blood sample on a fasting animal, feed the animal, and draw another sample 2 hours later - D. Draw a blood sample on a fasting animal, feed the animal, and draw another sample 2 hours later The current test choice for evaluating liver function is: A. Ammonia assay B. Bile acids C. Bilirubin D. Alanine aminotransferase - B. Bile acids Total protein levels are --- in a dehydrated animal. A. Unaffected B. Decreased C. Increased D. Variable - C. Increased Which of the following crystals is most likely found in the urine of an animal with ethylene glycol toxicity? A. Ammonium biurate B. Tyrosine C. Triple phosphate D. Calcium oxalate - D. Calcium oxalate What species has multiple forms of reticulocytes? A. Horses B. Cow C. Cat D. Dog - C. Cat The etiologic agent of Lyme disease is: A. Borrelia burgdorferi B. Coronavirus C. Lentivirus D. Pasteurella multocida - A. Borrelia burgdorferi Which of these tubes must never be placed on a blood rocker after being filled with blood? A. Blue top B. Green top C. Purple top D. Red top - D. Red top Which of the following options is least likely to interfere with blood chemistry test results? A. Postprandial serum B. Icteric serum C. Fasting serum D. Hemolyzed serum - C. Fasting serum Where on the blood smear would you select to start your WBC differential count? A. Thickest area B. Feathered edge C. Monocellular layer D. Thinnest area - C. Monocellular layer In which of the following species is rouleaux formation common? A. Rats B. Dogs C. Horses D. Pigs - C. Horses Serum chemistry tests for acute pancreatitis include: A. Amylase and lipase B. Lipase and trypsin C. Amylase and trypsin D. Amylase, lipase, and trypsin - A. Amylase and lipase Pollakiuria is defined as: A. Frequent urination with small volume voided B. Complete lack of urine production C. Excessive drinking and urinating D. Excessive urination at night - A. Frequent urination with small volume voided Which of the following may an elevated hematocrit indicate? A. Hyperglycemia B. Anemia C. Dehydration D. Leukocytosis - C. Dehydration Which of the following results may be found in a patient with a degenerative left shift? A. Leukocytosis B. No bands are present C. Lymphocytes outnumber neutrophils D. Bands outnumber mature neutrophils - D. Bands outnumber mature neutrophils Which of the following options is another term for icterus? A. Jaundice B. Xanthochromia C. Ketonemia D. Hemoglobinuria - A. Jaundice Bile acids aid in the digestion of: A. Proteins B. Carbohydrates C. Fats D. Globulins - C. Fats When considering hematology tests, clots in an EDTA sample are: A. Acceptable if they are microscopic B. Acceptable if they are detected on a wooden stick only C. Acceptable if they are run through an automatic analyzer D. Never acceptable - D. Never acceptable Which is least likely to be a clinical sign of a patient experiencing allergies? A. Face rubbing B. Ear problems C. Loss of appetite D. Skin rashes - C. Loss of appetite On a complete blood count (CBC), all of the following findings could be expected in a patient with an infection, except: A. Neutrophilia B. Leukocytosis C. Narrow buffy coat D. A left shift - C. Narrow buffy coat To make a smear with anemic blood, A. Increase the angle of the pusher slide B. Decrease the angle of the pusher slide C. Use a larger drop of blood D. Wait for drop of blood to dry partially - A. Increase the angle of the pusher slide Which of the red blood cell indices indicates cell size? A. MCH B. MCHC C. MCV D. MPV - C. MCV A correction for nucleated red blood cells (nRBC) is done to avoid a falsely: A. Elevated PCV B. Elevated WBC count C. Decreased PCV D. Decreased WBC count - B. Elevated WBC count RBC's with multiple, irregularly spaced projections are known as: A. Crenated cells B. Schistocytes C. Acntocytes D. Anisocytes - C. Acanthocytes Reticulocytes on a modified Wright stain (e.g., Diff-Quik) appear A. Polychromatic B. Hypochromic c. Hyperchromic D. Crenated - A. Polychromatic What is the most useful way to report WBC differential results? A. As percentages B. As relative numbers C. As absolute numbers D. As decimal numbers - C. As absolute numbers Determination of which of the following is useful in the detection of inflammatory processes? A. Total protein B. Hematocrit C. RBC morphology D. Fibrinogen - D. Fibrinogen The buffy coat in a spun hematocrit tube consists of: A. WBC's B. WBC's and platelets C. WBC's and nRBC's D. Platelets and nRBC's - B. WBC's and platelets Postrenal azotemia refers to: A. An increase in BUN resulting from severe liver disease B. An increase in BUN resulting from the inability to urinate C. A decrease in BUN resulting from severe renal disease D. An increase in BUN resulting from dehydration - B. An increase in BUN resulting from the inability to urinate What cells are phagocytic? A. Granulocytes B. Lymphocytes C. Neutrophils and macrophages D. Macrophages and lymphocytes - C. Neutrophils and macrphages Monocytes typically have: A. Segmented nuclei B. Band-shaped nuclei C. Lobular nuclei D. No nuclei - C. Lobular nuclei Which one of the following options would not affect a manual WBC count? A. Condenser in the farthest "up" position B. Length of time that the hemocytometer has been loaded C. Onjective lens used D. Mini clots in the blood - C. Objective lens used Which of the following options is not a sign of RBC regeneration? A. Polychromasia B. Nuclear remnants C. Spherocytes D. Anisocytosis with macrocytosis - C. Spherocytes A left shift refers to increased numbers of: A. Immature neutrophils B. Immature RBC's C. Immature platelets D. Immature lymphocytes - A. Immature neutrophils What special stain would be used in assessing anemia? A. Lactophenol cotton blue B. New methylene blue C. Gram D. Acridine orange - B. New methylene blue Which of the following is the most immature erythrocyte? A. Rubricyte B. Metarubricyte C. Rubriblast D. Reticulocyte - C. Rubriblast The intermediate host for heartworms is the: A. Flea B. Rodent C. Mosquito D. Snail - C. Mosquito Serology tests can detect heartworm in the dog's blood: A. Immediately after becoming infected B. Several days after becoming infected C. Several weeks after becoming infected D. Several months after becoming infected - D. Several months after becoming infected What are the two diagnostic forms of giardia? A. Cysts and trophozoites B. Merozoites and schizonts C. Oocysts and sporcysts D. Ova and L3 larvae - A. Cysts and trophozoites Compared to roundworm ova, coccidia appear: A. Smaller B. The same size C. Twice as large D. Three times as large - A. Smaller In a healthy animal, diminished water intake or loss of water would result in ---- urine specific gravity. A. Increased B. Decreased C. Isosthenuric D. Isotonic - A. Increased What urine sediment componant would be of the most significant concern? A. Sperm B. Fat droplets C. Squamous epithelial cells D. Blood cells - D. Blood cells Struvite crystals are also known as: A. Calcium carbonet crystals B. Calcium oxalate crystals C. Triple phosphate crystals D. Amorphous phosphate crystals - C. Triple phosphate crystals Crystals in urine sediment often indicate: A. uroliths B. Nothing C. Inflammation D. Urethral blockage - B. Nothing Which of the following test results are not determined by a urine dipstick? A. Glucose B. Blood C. Total protein D. BUN - D. BUN Casts that are seen in urine sediment are: A. Mucous threads filled with amorphous sediment B. Always significant C. Formed in the renal tubules D. Artifacts - C. Formed in the renal tubules The presence of protein in the urine may indicate: A. Acid-base imbalance B. Hemolytic anemia C. Kidney disease D. Diabetes mellitus - C. Kidney disease Which of these would not be associated with ketones in the urine? A. Diabetes mellitus B. Lactating cows C. Starvation D. Hemolysis - D. Hemolysis Mucus is normally seen in ---- urine. A. Canine B. Equine C. Feline D. Bovine - B. Equine The appearance of calcium oxalate crystals are described as: A. Hexagonal B. Dark, needlelike rods C. Brown spheres with long spicules D. Small squares that contain an x - D. Small squares that contain an x A common laboratory test for chronic pancreatitis is a fecal test for: A. Amylase B. Lipase C. Trypsin D. Bilirubin - C. Trypsin Fat droplets in urine samples are most commonly seen in: A. Dogs B. Cats C. Horses D. Cows - B. Cats Gram-negative bacteria retain what component of the gram stain? A. Crystal violet B. Iodine solution C. Decolorizer D. Safranin - D. Safranin What gram-negative bacteria may "swarm" a blood agar plate, leaving a film over the entire surface? A. Pseudomonas sp. B. Staphylococcus sp. C. Proteus sp. D. Escherichia coli - C. Proteus sp. What microorganism is frequently recovered from the ears of dogs with chronic otitis externa? A. Candida sp. B. Cryptococcus sp. C. Microsporum sp. D. Malassezia sp. - D. Malassezia sp. What microorganism is an etiologic agent of ringworm? A. Microsporum sp. B. Mycobacterium sp. C. Micrococcus sp. D. Moraxella sp. - A. Microsporum sp. Which species includes common contaminants and is the causative agent of anthrax? A. Escherichia B. Corynebacterium C. Bacillus D. Enterobacter - C. Bacillus What is the common pathogen in mastitis, skin wounds, and abcesses, which is also found in the environment? A. Proteus vulgaris B. Escherichia coli C. Streptococcus spp. D. Staphylococcus aureus - D. Staphylococcus aureus Stress and epinephrine release in cats might cause an increase in: A. BUN B. Total protein C. ALT D. Glucose - D. Glucose A kidney function test that has been found useful in birds and dalmations is: A. BUN B. Creatinine C. Uric acid D. AST - C. Uric acid What serum component can be used as a screening test for hypothyroidism? A. ALT B. Cholesterol C. Total protein D. Creatinine kinase - B. Cholesterol During a glucose tolerance test, glucose levels in a diabetic animal will: A. Show and initial peak and then diminish to normal B. Remain high throughout the test C. Show a delayed peak at the end of the test period D. Show below normal levels throughout the test - B. Remain high throughout the test What organ conserves nutrients, removes waste products, maintains blood pH, and controls blood pressure? A. Kidney B. Liver C. Pancreas D. Spleen - A. Kidney The small intestine recieves digestive enzymes from the: A. Kidney B.Liver C. Pancreas D. Speen - B. Pancreas Bile acids aid in the absorption of: A. Proteins B. Carbohydrates C. Fats D. Globulins - C. Fats Fibrinogen is produced in the: A. Pancreas B. Bone marrow C. Liver D. Spleen - C. Liver Which of the following samples can be frozen and successfully thawed for performing an analytic test at a later time? A. Feces for a fecal float test B. Whole blood for chemistry testing C. Serum for chemistry testing D. Whole blood for a CBC - C. Serum for chemistry testing If there is only a small amount of serum seperated after centrifuging a tube of whole blood (and you need more for testing), what should you do? A. Invert the tube several times and respin it B. Assume the patient is dehydrated and draw off all of the serum you can C. Spin the tube again at a faster speed and a longer time D. Rim/ring the clot and spin again at a normal speed and time - D. Rim/ring the clot and spin again at a normal speed and time Arterial blood is most commonly used to analyze A. Hematology B. Blood gasses C. Blood chemistry D. Organ function tests - B. Blood gasses All of the following cells are produced in the bone marrow, except: A. Erythrocytes B. Lymphocytes C. Neutrophils D. Eosinophils - B. Lymphocytes Looking under a microscope at a blood smear, you see erythrocytes that are elliptical, not nucleated, and lacking central pallor. From which species was this sample most likely collected? A. Bird B. Horse C. Llama D. Snake - C. Llama Under the microscope you observe a leukocyte that you identify as an eosinophil. The eosinophil cytoplasm contains numerous rod-shaped granules. From which species was this sample most likely collected? A. Dog B. Cat C. Horse D. Cow - B. Cat Which of the following is a common finding on a blood smear from an animal with autoimmune hemolytic anemia? A. Heinz bodies B. Howell-Jolly bodies C. Spherocytes D. Target cells - C. Spherocytes Serum electrolyte levels should be determined when evaluating the function of the: A. Liver B. Pancreas C. Kidneys D. Heart - C. Kidneys Kidney disease leads to the accumulation of metabolic waste in the blood, a condition known as: A. Hypernaturia B. Hypernatremia C. Azotemia D. Azoturia - C. Azotemia For which of the following diagnostics is low-power magnification on the microscope not used? A. To detect the presence of rouleaux B. To detect RBC agglutination C. To detect clumping of platelets D. To estimate platelet numbers - D. To estimate platelet numbers What characteristic is not found in toxic neutrophils? A. Howell-Jolly bodies B. Vacuolated cytoplasm C. Dohle bodies D. Basophilic cytoplasm - A. Howell-Jolly bodies What laboratory test evaluates primary hemostasis? A. Activated clotting times B. Activated partial thromboplastin time C. Buccal mucosal bleeding time D. One-step prothrombin time - C. Buccal mucosal bleeding time Secondary hemostasis refers to: A. The coagulation cascade B. Vascular spasm C. Clot lysis D. Platelet plug formation - A. The coagulation cascade A good presurgical screening test for von Willebrand disease is a(n): A. Total platelet count B. Buccal mucosal bleeding time C. Activated clotting time D. Activated partial thromboplastin time - B. Buccal mucosal bleeding time When collecting blood for a coagulation profile, it is especially important to: A. Use a gray-top vacutainer B. Analyze the sample immediately C. Use EDTA as the anticoagulant D. Minimize vascular trauma during venipuncture - D. Minimizze vascular trauma during venipuncture Physical signs of hypocoagulation include all of the following, except: A. Petechiae or ecchymoses B. Epistaxis C. Hematuria D. Thromboembolism - D. Thromboembolism An animal that tested positive for heartworm infection might also have an elevation of which of the following blood cells? A. Leukocytes B. Lymphocytes C. Eosinophils D. Monocytes - C. Eosinophils When using Diff-Quik to stain bone marrow smears, it is especially important to: A. Use freshly filtered stain B. Dip the smear twice as long as blood smears C. Rinse thoroughly with distilled water D. Let the smear dry for 30 minutes before stianing - B. Dip the smear twice as long as blood smears The ability of the renal tubules to concentrate or dilute a urine sample is assessed by what component of the urinalysis? A. pH B. Volume C. Specific gravity D. Examination of the sediment - C. Specific gravity Which epithelial cell is the the largest of the cells found in urine? A. Squamous epithelial cells B. Caudate epithelial cells C. Tranisitional epithelial cells D. Renal epithelial cells - A. Squamous epithelial cells The most common uroliths found in feline and canine urine are: A. Struvite B. Calcium oxalate C. Urate D. Cystine - A. Struvite The best urine collection method to assess the patency of the urethra is: A. Catheterization B. Manual expression C. Free catch D. Cystopcentesis - A. Catheterization Which of the following statements regarding casts is incorrect? A. A few hyaline or granular casts may be seen in normal urine B. All casts are cylindric with parallel sides C. Casts dissolve in acidic urine D. Casts may be disrupted with high-speed centrifugation and rough sample handling - C. Casts dissolve in acidic urine Puddin, a 2-year-old castrated male domestic shorthair cat, was missing for 5 days before coming home. His owners were very concerned that he appeared weak and tired, so they brought him to the clinic. You find on initial physical examination that he is significantly dehydrated. You are not at all surprised when you find that his urine specific gravity is A. 1.002 B. 1.012 C. 1.030 D. 1.060 - D. 1.060 Bilirubinuria is considered a normal finding in what species? A. Dogs B. Cats C. Horses D. Sheep - A. Dogs Sadie, a 17-year-old spayed female domestic shorthair cat, is in the final stages of chronic renal failure. On presentation, you anticipate that her urine specific gravity will probably be A. 1.012 B. 1.030 C. 1.040 D. 1.060 - A. 1.012 What method of urine sample collection would not be associated with traumatic hematuria? A. Catheterization B. Manual expression C. Free catch D. Cystocentesis - C. Free catch Sasha, an 11-year-old spayed female domestic shorthair cat, was accidentally overhydrated with IV fluids. What would you expect her urine specific gravity to be? A. 1.002 B. 1.012 C. 1.030 D. 1.060 - A. 1.002 In a diabetic animal, blood chemistry analysis is commonly performed to monitor insulin therapy by measuring blood levels of: A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Glucose D. Insulin - C. Glucose Leukocytes in the urine sediment and a positive nitrite reaction on the urinary colorimetric strip provide presumptive evidence that the patient may have a : A. Neoplasm B. Diabetic condition C. Renal failure D. Bacterial infection - D. Bacterial infection What gland is the most active producer of corticosteriods? A. Thyroid gland B. Pancreas C. Pituitary gland D. Adrenal glands - D. Adrenal glands In an animal with a history of bone resorption or convulsions, blood chemistry analysis is commonly performed to measure blood levels of: A. Calcium and phosphorus B. Urea nitrogen and creatinine C. Aspartate aminotransferase and alanine transaminase D. Sodium and potassium - A. Calcium and phosphorus The gland function that is evaluated be measuring blood cortisol levels before and after administration of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is the: A. Thyroid gland B. Pancreas C. Liver D. Adrenal glands - D. Adrenal glands Struvite crystals are composed of: A. Calcium potassium carbonates B. Magnesium ammonium phosphates C. Oxalates D. Urates - B. Magnesium ammonium phosphates The gland that is evaluated by measuring blood levels of T3 and T4 is the: A. Thyroid gland B. Pancreas C. Pituitary gland D. Thymus - A. Thyroid gland Measurement of blood levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and ACTH is used to evaluate the function of the: A. Thyroid gland B. Pancreas C. Pituitary gland D. Adrenal glands - C. Pituitary gland Blood chemistry analysis is commonly performed to evaluate function of the ---- in an animal showing lethargy, obesity, mild anemia, infertility, and alopecia. A. Thyroid gland B. Pancreas C. Thymus D. Adrenal glands - A. Thyroid gland Which of the following statements regarding creatinine is false? A. It is an indicator of the glomerular filtration rate B. It is produced as a result of normal muscle metabolism C. It is a less reliable indicator of renal function than BUN D. It is usually evaluated in conjunction with the BUN and urine specific gravity - C. It is a less reliable indicator of renal function than BUN A good initial urinary screening test for suspected Cushing's disease is: A. Endogenous ACTH B. Low-dose dexmethasone suppression test C. ACTH stimulation D. Cortisol/creatinine ration - D. Cortisol/creatinine ratio Chemistry evaluation of the kidney includes measurement of metabolic wastes in the blood in the form of: A. Aspartate aminotransferase and alanine transaminase B. Urea nitrogen and creatinine C. Ammonia and pyruvic acid D. Bilirubin and urobilinogen - B. Urea nitrogen and creatinine Measurement of blood levels of amylase and lipase is used to evaluate the function of the: A. Kidneys B. Liver C. Pancreas D. Adrenal glands - C. Pancreas Ammonia is metabolized by the liver and eliminated by the kidneys. Levels of which metabolic byproduct of ammonia are measured to assess kidney function? A. Phosphorus B. Creatinine C. Aspartate aminotransferase D. Urea nitrogen - D. Urea nitrogen The main function of bicarbonate is to: A. Maintain the proper osmotic pressure of fluids in the body B. Maintain normal muscular function C. Maintain normal cardiac rhythm and contractility D. Maintain balanced body pH levels - D. Maintain balanced body pH levels Kidney disease results in accumulation of metabolic waste in the blood, a condition known as: A. Azotemia B. Bilirubinemia C. Hypernatremia D. Hyperkalemia - A. Azotemia Prerenal azotemia refers to: A. An increase in BUN resulting from severe liver disease B. A decrease in BUN resulting from severe liver disease C. An increase in BUN resulting from dehydration, shock, and/or decreased blood flow to the kidneys D. An increase in BUN resulting from the inability to urinate - C. An increase in BUN resulting from dehydration, shock, and/or decreased blood flow to the kidneys A glucose tolerance test is used to help diagnose: A. Cushing's disease B. Hypothyroidism C. Addison's disease D. Diabetes mellitus - D. Diabetes mellitus Which white blood cell is known as "the first line of defense" after a microorganism has entered the body? A. Eosinophil B. Lymphocyte C. Monocyte D. Neutrophil - D. Neutrophil The red-top vacutainer tube should sit at room temperature for ---- before centrifugation, allowing a clot to form. A. 5 mintues B. 30 minutes C. 1 hour D. 0 minutes (No clot will form) - B. 30 minutes Dioctophyma renale is often found in the ---- of dogs. A. Right kidney B. Left kidney C. Urinary bladder D. Ureters - A. Right kidney Which of the following is the best method of preservation if you are unable to perform a CBC within 1 hour of blood collection? A. Freeze the sample B. Spin down the sample, refrigerate cells, and freeze serum C. Add formalin to the sample D. Refrigerate the sample - D. Refrigerate the sample The mucin clot test is performed on: A. Joint fluid B. Plasma C. Serum D. Urine - A. Joint fluid Which of the following is associated with clotting disorders? A. Anemia B. Leukopenia C. Thrombocytopenia D. Reticulocytosis - C. Thrombocytopenia When preparing cytology samples for microscopic evaluation, what is the best technique to use? A. Wet prep B. Squash prep C. Modified knott prep D. Willis prep - B. Squash prep Which of the following would be considered an abnormal finding on healthy canine external ear canal cytology? A. Cerumen B. Epithelial cells C. Malassezia D. Debris - C. Malassezia The main function of the neutrophil is: A. Phagocytosis B. Hypersensitivity reaction C. Allergic reaction D. Immune response - A. Phagocytosis What is the primary function of eosinophils? A. Phagocytosis B. Respond to autoimmune reactions C. Respond to allergic reaction D. Initiate an immune reaction - C. Respond to allergic reactions How long must the typical microhematocrit tube be centrifuged for packed cell volume determination? A. 1 minute B. 5 minutes C. 10 minutes D. 15 mintues - B. 5 minutes What measure determines the average size of an erythrocyte? A. Mean corpuscular volume B. Packed cell volume (PCV) C. Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) D. Mean corpuscular hemoglobin - A. Mean corpuscular volume In what type of blood cell can Dohle bodies be found? A. Erythrocytes B. Neutrophils C. Platelets D. Nucleated RBC's - B. Neutrophils In what species are the platelets normally larger than the red blood cells? A. Bovine B. Canine C. Equine D. Feline - D. Feline The term for red blood cell formation is: A. Erythropoietin B. Erythropoiesis C. Hematopoietin D. Leukopoiesis - B. Erythropoiesis What is the sequence of cells listed from most immature to most mature? A. Rubricyte, reticulocyte, rubriblast, erythrocyte B. Rubriblast, reticulocyte, rubricyte, erythrocyte C. Rubriblast, rubricyte, reticulocyte, erythrocyte D. Reticulocyte, rubriblast, rubricyte, erythrocyte - C. Rubriblast, rubricyte, reticulocyte, erythrocyte What test is used to diagnose autoimmune hemolytic anemia? A. Red cell fragility test B. Modified knott C. Coombs D. Coggins - C. Coombs What term indicates an abnormally high lymphocyte count? A. Lymphocytosis B. Leukosis C. Lymphocytopenia D. Lymphosarcoma - A. Lymphocytosis It is important to keep cytology samples and unstained slides away from ---- so that the samples can be stained properly later? A. Acetone B. Ether C. Formalin D. Saline - C. Formalin Which of the following is considered a tick-borne organism found in dogs? A. Toxoplasma B. Isospora C. Ehrlichia D. Cryptosporidium - C. Ehrlichia