D115 master set-Advanced
Pathophysiology for the Advanced
Practice Nurse 2025
Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females? -
answerSex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the affected
chromosome has the illness, it will be expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known cause? -
answerIntellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome abnormalities are the
leading known cause of intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? - answerChorionic villus
sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are
examples of prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form of
genetic testing that provides genetic information found in utero and is usually performed
between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a form of genetic testing
that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually performed during the second trimester,
between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo prior to
implantation.
Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one
chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a missing
gene? - answerCri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA
deletion. This term describes the cry often heard from a baby affected by the syndrome.
Cri du chat syndrome can present as a microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a
piercing cry.
How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? - answerThe disease can be
transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an
unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of the
disease because she has the other X (the only X the father can give to a female) to
cancel it out.
Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire
population to the disease rate in an unexposed population? - answerRelative risk is a
ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence of disease.
What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on? - answerMany
factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases. Observation and
evaluation of each case individually provides the most thorough and accurate
assessment.
,What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. - answerThe imprinted gene is the
silent gene of a gene pair.
What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflammation and
wound healing? - answerThe underlying chronic illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's
reserves to fight against illness.
Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion? -
answerEosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
What Phagocytes bacteria? - answerMacrophages work by eating or phagocytosing
bacteria.
What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? - answerHelper T cells
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when
considering the antigen? - answerImmunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to
recognize something foreign.
How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered, causing an
ABO incompatibility? - answerThe complement pathway is activated in response to
blood incompatibility.
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis? - answerAn
immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
Which four infections are considered fungal infections? - answerInfection with a fungus
is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to several skin
mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include candida and
aspergillus.
When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect
infection? - answerLab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual
transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a
positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a false negative test due to
testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins? - answerExotoxins are released during bacterial
growth.
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing
colon cancer? - answerThe results of decreased fat consumption have been widely
studied and have demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years most
likely to develop? - answerAsbestos exposure results in an increased risk of lung and
lung lining cancer.
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength. - answerUV light
causes basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB rays hit DNA
strands, causing thymine base pairs that are side by side to pair together, becoming
thymine dimers. These thymine dimers lead to cell death or cancer.
Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing? - answerExercise-
induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood pressure control
and has been shown to have adverse effects on health outcomes.
true or false - answerTRUE
,By providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level, improved health
outcomes may result.
One of the goals of the National Action Plan to Improve Health Literacy is to incorporate
research and evidence-based plans of treatment from childhood through university-level
education in a manner consistent with an individual's literacy level.
True or false - answerTrue
Ensuring the individual can understand all elements of a treatment plan is crucial for
understanding and compliance.
What is a red flag for low healthcare literacy? - answerLow literacy often leads to
perceived noncompliance to medical instructions, including medication instructions.
Ensuring the patient fully understands all instructions is critical for understanding.
Amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant women with certain health histories.
Which health history would result in an amniocentesis recommendation? - answerThose
who have a family history of genetic disorders
Studies have identified several genes that play a role in the prevention of obesity.
What do these genes influence? - answerRegulation of appetite-Research has shown
that genetic mutations may cause alterations in the regulation of appetite.
Which concept is data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in 600
black Americans an example of? - answerPrevalence tells us how often disease is seen
in a population, which includes all people with the disease at a given time, at any stage
in the disease progression.
What describes a chromosomal defect caused by Prader-Willi syndrome? -
answerPrader-Willi syndrome is caused by a disorder of a portion of chromosome 15.
Normally, a portion of this chromosome is inherited from both parents. With Prader-Willi
syndrome, the chromosome inherited from the father is problematic.
Which action is a purpose of the inflammatory process? - answerPrevent infection of the
injured tissue
The inflammatory response is a defense mechanism designed to remove damaged
tissue so the body can heal.
Which leukocytes are elevated in response to acute inflammatory reactions when
considering white blood cell differentials?
Monocytes
Neutrophils
Basophils
Eosinophils - answerNeutrophils are one of the first responders to acute inflammation,
and an increase in neutrophils demonstrates an acute inflammatory response.
Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the
antigen or after immunization against the antigen? - answerActive-acquired immunity or
naturally acquired active immunity occurs when an individual is exposed to a live
pathogen and develops the disease or becomes immune as a result of a vaccine.
Which characteristics do atopic individuals have that make them genetically
predisposed to develop allergies? - answerThe greater quantities of IgE in atopic
individuals make them genetically predisposed to develop allergies. IgE mediates the
immune response to allergens; therefore, the more IgE one has, the stronger the
response can be to an allergen. Think of it as having more soldiers in the army to fight
the war.
, A healthcare professional is conducting community education on vaccinations.
Which statement about vaccines should the professional include in the presentation? -
answerVaccines require booster injections to maintain life-long protection.
Most vaccines require a booster to increase immunity. The initial effects of a vaccine
may diminish over time, and boosters improve protection against disease.
Which term describes an agent's ability to produce disease? - answerPathogenicity
refers to an organism's ability to create or produce disease.
What are signs and symptoms of Cri du Chrat Syndrome? - answerDNA deletion of
chromosome 5. low birth weight, mental retardation, microencephaly, and cat like cry
What are the 3 layers of human defense? - answerPhysical, Mechanical, biochemical
barriers
What happens in the physical layer of human defense. - answerprotect against damage
and infection are composed of tightly associated epithelial cells including those of the
skin and of the membranous sheets lining the gastrointestinal, genitourinary, and
respiratory tracts.
What is the second line of defense and the process? - answerInflammatory response-
rapid and nonspecific, protective response to cellular injury from any cause. It can occur
only in vascularized tissue.
How do acute and chronic inflammation differ? - answerAcute- Short duration, 8-10
days from onset to healing.
Chronic inflammation- can be a continuation of acute inflammation that last 2 weeks or
longer. It can also occur as a distinct process without much preceding acute
inflammation
What three systemic changes associated with acute inflammatory response -
answerFever, leukocytosis, plasma protein synthesis
How does the inflammatory response differ in neonates? - answerNeonates often have
transiently depressed inflammatory function, particularly neutrophil chemotaxis and
alternative complement activity.
Hypersensitivity Response- I vs II - answerI - IgE mediated- primary cause of common
allergies. Binds with mast cells which release histamine. (initiates allergic reaction).
Histamine release leads to bronchial smooth muscle contraction, bronchoconstriction,
and immune response
II- tissue specific- wrong blood type administered or hemolytic disease of the
A vaccine is what kind of immunity - answerAdaptive
Active immunization is produced by - answeran individual in response to an antigen or
after immunization.
What are some common diseases that are categorized as multifactorial in nature? -
answerHTN, CAD, Cancers, Diabetes, Obesity, Alzheimer's Disease
Symptoms of Chronic suppurative otitis media - answerChronic suppurative otitis
media- will have hearing loss, purulent drainage, ear pain.
What is Gate Control Theory - answerpain transmission is modulated by a balance of
impulses conducted to the spinal cord where cells in the
substantia gelatinosa function as a "gate".
What is the parathyroid gland responsible for - answerproduces parathyroid hormone
(PTH)-
which is the single most important factor in the regulation of
Pathophysiology for the Advanced
Practice Nurse 2025
Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females? -
answerSex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the affected
chromosome has the illness, it will be expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known cause? -
answerIntellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome abnormalities are the
leading known cause of intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? - answerChorionic villus
sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are
examples of prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form of
genetic testing that provides genetic information found in utero and is usually performed
between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a form of genetic testing
that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually performed during the second trimester,
between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo prior to
implantation.
Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one
chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a missing
gene? - answerCri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA
deletion. This term describes the cry often heard from a baby affected by the syndrome.
Cri du chat syndrome can present as a microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a
piercing cry.
How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? - answerThe disease can be
transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an
unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of the
disease because she has the other X (the only X the father can give to a female) to
cancel it out.
Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire
population to the disease rate in an unexposed population? - answerRelative risk is a
ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence of disease.
What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on? - answerMany
factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases. Observation and
evaluation of each case individually provides the most thorough and accurate
assessment.
,What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. - answerThe imprinted gene is the
silent gene of a gene pair.
What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflammation and
wound healing? - answerThe underlying chronic illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's
reserves to fight against illness.
Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion? -
answerEosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
What Phagocytes bacteria? - answerMacrophages work by eating or phagocytosing
bacteria.
What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? - answerHelper T cells
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when
considering the antigen? - answerImmunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to
recognize something foreign.
How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered, causing an
ABO incompatibility? - answerThe complement pathway is activated in response to
blood incompatibility.
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis? - answerAn
immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
Which four infections are considered fungal infections? - answerInfection with a fungus
is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to several skin
mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include candida and
aspergillus.
When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect
infection? - answerLab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual
transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a
positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a false negative test due to
testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins? - answerExotoxins are released during bacterial
growth.
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing
colon cancer? - answerThe results of decreased fat consumption have been widely
studied and have demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years most
likely to develop? - answerAsbestos exposure results in an increased risk of lung and
lung lining cancer.
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength. - answerUV light
causes basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB rays hit DNA
strands, causing thymine base pairs that are side by side to pair together, becoming
thymine dimers. These thymine dimers lead to cell death or cancer.
Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing? - answerExercise-
induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood pressure control
and has been shown to have adverse effects on health outcomes.
true or false - answerTRUE
,By providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level, improved health
outcomes may result.
One of the goals of the National Action Plan to Improve Health Literacy is to incorporate
research and evidence-based plans of treatment from childhood through university-level
education in a manner consistent with an individual's literacy level.
True or false - answerTrue
Ensuring the individual can understand all elements of a treatment plan is crucial for
understanding and compliance.
What is a red flag for low healthcare literacy? - answerLow literacy often leads to
perceived noncompliance to medical instructions, including medication instructions.
Ensuring the patient fully understands all instructions is critical for understanding.
Amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant women with certain health histories.
Which health history would result in an amniocentesis recommendation? - answerThose
who have a family history of genetic disorders
Studies have identified several genes that play a role in the prevention of obesity.
What do these genes influence? - answerRegulation of appetite-Research has shown
that genetic mutations may cause alterations in the regulation of appetite.
Which concept is data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in 600
black Americans an example of? - answerPrevalence tells us how often disease is seen
in a population, which includes all people with the disease at a given time, at any stage
in the disease progression.
What describes a chromosomal defect caused by Prader-Willi syndrome? -
answerPrader-Willi syndrome is caused by a disorder of a portion of chromosome 15.
Normally, a portion of this chromosome is inherited from both parents. With Prader-Willi
syndrome, the chromosome inherited from the father is problematic.
Which action is a purpose of the inflammatory process? - answerPrevent infection of the
injured tissue
The inflammatory response is a defense mechanism designed to remove damaged
tissue so the body can heal.
Which leukocytes are elevated in response to acute inflammatory reactions when
considering white blood cell differentials?
Monocytes
Neutrophils
Basophils
Eosinophils - answerNeutrophils are one of the first responders to acute inflammation,
and an increase in neutrophils demonstrates an acute inflammatory response.
Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the
antigen or after immunization against the antigen? - answerActive-acquired immunity or
naturally acquired active immunity occurs when an individual is exposed to a live
pathogen and develops the disease or becomes immune as a result of a vaccine.
Which characteristics do atopic individuals have that make them genetically
predisposed to develop allergies? - answerThe greater quantities of IgE in atopic
individuals make them genetically predisposed to develop allergies. IgE mediates the
immune response to allergens; therefore, the more IgE one has, the stronger the
response can be to an allergen. Think of it as having more soldiers in the army to fight
the war.
, A healthcare professional is conducting community education on vaccinations.
Which statement about vaccines should the professional include in the presentation? -
answerVaccines require booster injections to maintain life-long protection.
Most vaccines require a booster to increase immunity. The initial effects of a vaccine
may diminish over time, and boosters improve protection against disease.
Which term describes an agent's ability to produce disease? - answerPathogenicity
refers to an organism's ability to create or produce disease.
What are signs and symptoms of Cri du Chrat Syndrome? - answerDNA deletion of
chromosome 5. low birth weight, mental retardation, microencephaly, and cat like cry
What are the 3 layers of human defense? - answerPhysical, Mechanical, biochemical
barriers
What happens in the physical layer of human defense. - answerprotect against damage
and infection are composed of tightly associated epithelial cells including those of the
skin and of the membranous sheets lining the gastrointestinal, genitourinary, and
respiratory tracts.
What is the second line of defense and the process? - answerInflammatory response-
rapid and nonspecific, protective response to cellular injury from any cause. It can occur
only in vascularized tissue.
How do acute and chronic inflammation differ? - answerAcute- Short duration, 8-10
days from onset to healing.
Chronic inflammation- can be a continuation of acute inflammation that last 2 weeks or
longer. It can also occur as a distinct process without much preceding acute
inflammation
What three systemic changes associated with acute inflammatory response -
answerFever, leukocytosis, plasma protein synthesis
How does the inflammatory response differ in neonates? - answerNeonates often have
transiently depressed inflammatory function, particularly neutrophil chemotaxis and
alternative complement activity.
Hypersensitivity Response- I vs II - answerI - IgE mediated- primary cause of common
allergies. Binds with mast cells which release histamine. (initiates allergic reaction).
Histamine release leads to bronchial smooth muscle contraction, bronchoconstriction,
and immune response
II- tissue specific- wrong blood type administered or hemolytic disease of the
A vaccine is what kind of immunity - answerAdaptive
Active immunization is produced by - answeran individual in response to an antigen or
after immunization.
What are some common diseases that are categorized as multifactorial in nature? -
answerHTN, CAD, Cancers, Diabetes, Obesity, Alzheimer's Disease
Symptoms of Chronic suppurative otitis media - answerChronic suppurative otitis
media- will have hearing loss, purulent drainage, ear pain.
What is Gate Control Theory - answerpain transmission is modulated by a balance of
impulses conducted to the spinal cord where cells in the
substantia gelatinosa function as a "gate".
What is the parathyroid gland responsible for - answerproduces parathyroid hormone
(PTH)-
which is the single most important factor in the regulation of
