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ch 31 - 36
Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1. What changes in antibodies during class switching?
a. the variable region of the light chain
b. the constant region of the light chain
c. the Fab fragment
d. the variable region of the heavy chain
e. the constant region of the heavy chain
2. Which statement about the tryptophan operon is FALSE?
a. This operon encodes five enzymes that convert chorismate into tryptophan.
b. It has a leader sequence before the initiation codon of the first structural protein.
c. It exploits the attenuator as a site of transcription termination.
d. It exploits the riboswitch as a site of transcription termination.
e. It contains a leader peptide before the site of transcription termination.
3. What antibody participates in allergic reactions?
a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgE
d. IgG
e. IgM
4. What governs the recovery speed of the visual transduction system?
a. control of the rate of GTP hydrolysis by Ca2+ levels
b. exchange of GDP by the α subunit of transducin
c. presence of guanylate cyclase
d. control of cGMP reduction
e. control of the rate of cGMP synthesis by Ca2+ levels
5. How many α helices are in the ligand-binding domain of the nuclear hormone receptor?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 10
d. 12
e. 15
6. What is common between gustation and olfaction?
a. There are several classes of compounds that can't be detected by smell but can by taste.
b. Discrimination by taste and smell is quite modest.
c. A number of clues pointed toward the involvement of G-proteins for both senses.
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d. Each odorant, as well as tastant, stimulates the whole region of the brain.
e. Both senses have specialized sensing structures in the oral cavity.
7. Which statement about the Shine–Dalgarno sequence is FALSE?
a. It is named after John Shine and Lynn Dalgarno, who first described it.
b. Mutagenesis of the CCUCC sequence near the 3´-end of 16S rRNA to ACACA markedly interferes
with the recognition of start sites in mRNA.
c. The number of base pairs linking the Shine–Dalgarno sequence and the 3¢-end of 16S rRNA ranges
from 3 to 9.
d. The pairing of the Shine–Dalgarno sequence with the 3´-end of 16S rRNA is the only interaction that
determines where protein synthesis starts.
e. The Shine–Dalgarno sequence is centered about 10 nucleotides on the 5´-side of the initiator codon.
8. What is the MOST common mechanism of gene regulation?
a. alteration in the transcription phases
b. modulation of the transcription rate
c. modulation of the rate of transcription initiation
d. modulation of the rate of transcription elongation
e. modulation of the rate of transcription termination
9. How many P-loop NTPase domains are encoded in the dynein sequence and how many of them actually bind
nucleotides?
a. 6 encoded; 6 bind
b. 6 encoded; 5 bind
c. 4 encoded; 4 bind
d. 5 encoded; 4 bind
e. 6 encoded; 4 bind
10. Choose the CORRECT statement about taste response.
a. In human beings, only aspartate elicits a taste response.
b. The umami receptor does not participate in the sweet response.
c. In animals, only glutamate elicits a taste response.
d. The umami receptor has one subunit (T1R3).
e. In human beings, only glutamate and aspartate elicit a taste response.
11. Which statement about molecular motors is CORRECT?
a. Myosin moves along filaments of tropomyosin.
b. There is an approximately equal amount of kinesin and myosin genes in the human genome.
c. Dyneins are involved in protein, mRNA, and vesicle transport.
d. Heavy chains of kinesin have a molecular mass greater than 500 kDa.
e. There are four major families of motor proteins in eukaryotic cells.
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ch 31 - 36
12. The sequence identity of protein A and protein B is not in the range of 30%–70%. Those proteins are:
a. OR1 and OR2.
b. T2R1 and T2R5.
c. OR and β-adrenergic receptor.
d. cone photoreceptor and rhodopsin.
e. T1R2 and T1R3.
13. The initiation of actin filament assembly is energetically:
a. favorable and does not require additional components.
b. unfavorable and requires complexes such as Arp 2/3 as nuclei for assembly.
c. unfavorable and requires complexes such as Arp 2/3 as a power stroke for assembly.
d. favorable and requires complexes such as Arp 2/3 as nuclei for assembly.
e. unfavorable and requires complexes such as troponin as nuclei for assembly.
14. What cells secrete antibodies?
a. thymus cells
b. B lymphocytes
c. plasma cells
d. killer T cells
e. helper T cells
15. The first type of antibody that is found in the serum after an antigen is detected is:
a. IgM.
b. IgB.
c. IgG.
d. IgD.
e. IgE.
16. Binding site symmetry determines that:
a. the DNA-binding protein functions as a dimer.
b. the repressor requires a corepressor to function.
c. initiation of transcription will be stimulated by a factor of 50.
d. the DNA-binding protein stimulates transcription.
e. the number of binding sites in the genome is limited.
17. What is a useful instrument in organ transplantation?
a. immunomodulators
b. immunosuppressors
c. immuno induction
d. class switching
e. immune response
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ch 31 - 36
18. Choose the CORRECT statement. Translocon:
a. catalyzes the movement of mRNA by a distance of three nucleotides.
b. binds to the 50S ribosome subunit and hydrolyzes the GTP molecule.
c. stimulates moving peptidyl-tRNA into the P site and shifts the mRNA by one codon, exposing the
next codon to be translated in the A site.
d. is a protein-conducting channel that opens after interaction with the ribosome.
e. due to its dissociation, leaves the ribosome ready to accept the next aminoacyl-tRNA into the A site.
19. Choose the CORRECT statement about structural components involved in cytotoxic activation.
a. Unlike the β chain, the α chain of the T-cell receptor consists of two immunoglobulin domains on the
cell surface and a membrane-spanning domain.
b. The foreign peptide, unlike the MHC protein, can form a complex with the T-cell receptor alone.
c. CD4 is crucial for recognition of the class I MHC–peptide complex.
d. The interaction of CD8 and the constant α3 domain of the class I MHC proteins stabilizes the
interactions between the T cell and its target.
e. The cytoplasmic tail of CD8 contains a docking site for Src.
20. Which structural feature of transcriptional factors is often stabilized by appropriately spaced leucine
residues?
a. activation domain
b. helix-turn-helix proteins
c. bZip unit
d. zinc-finger domains
e. homeodomain in eukaryotes
21. Which statement about the difference between initiation phases of prokaryotes and eukaryotes is FALSE?
a. In prokaryotes, the starting codon is preceded by the Shine–Dalgarno sequence, while in eukaryotes
it is the AUG nearest to the 5´-end of mRNA.
b. A bacterial mRNA can have multiple start sites, while a eukaryotic mRNA has only one.
c. In eukaryotes, pre-mRNA must be processed and transported to the cytoplasm before translation is
initiated.
d. All eukaryotic mRNA can recruit ribosomes for initiation with the use of internal ribosome entry
sites (IRES) rather than a 5´-cap.
e. In eukaryotes, the initiating amino acid is methionine rather than N-formylmethionine.
22. What are the components of the signal recognition particle?
a. 7S RNA and 6 proteins
b. 7S RNA and 7 proteins
c. 6S RNA and 7 proteins
d. 5S RNA and 6 proteins
e. 7S RNA and 5 proteins
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ch 31 - 36
Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1. What changes in antibodies during class switching?
a. the variable region of the light chain
b. the constant region of the light chain
c. the Fab fragment
d. the variable region of the heavy chain
e. the constant region of the heavy chain
2. Which statement about the tryptophan operon is FALSE?
a. This operon encodes five enzymes that convert chorismate into tryptophan.
b. It has a leader sequence before the initiation codon of the first structural protein.
c. It exploits the attenuator as a site of transcription termination.
d. It exploits the riboswitch as a site of transcription termination.
e. It contains a leader peptide before the site of transcription termination.
3. What antibody participates in allergic reactions?
a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgE
d. IgG
e. IgM
4. What governs the recovery speed of the visual transduction system?
a. control of the rate of GTP hydrolysis by Ca2+ levels
b. exchange of GDP by the α subunit of transducin
c. presence of guanylate cyclase
d. control of cGMP reduction
e. control of the rate of cGMP synthesis by Ca2+ levels
5. How many α helices are in the ligand-binding domain of the nuclear hormone receptor?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 10
d. 12
e. 15
6. What is common between gustation and olfaction?
a. There are several classes of compounds that can't be detected by smell but can by taste.
b. Discrimination by taste and smell is quite modest.
c. A number of clues pointed toward the involvement of G-proteins for both senses.
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ch 31 - 36
d. Each odorant, as well as tastant, stimulates the whole region of the brain.
e. Both senses have specialized sensing structures in the oral cavity.
7. Which statement about the Shine–Dalgarno sequence is FALSE?
a. It is named after John Shine and Lynn Dalgarno, who first described it.
b. Mutagenesis of the CCUCC sequence near the 3´-end of 16S rRNA to ACACA markedly interferes
with the recognition of start sites in mRNA.
c. The number of base pairs linking the Shine–Dalgarno sequence and the 3¢-end of 16S rRNA ranges
from 3 to 9.
d. The pairing of the Shine–Dalgarno sequence with the 3´-end of 16S rRNA is the only interaction that
determines where protein synthesis starts.
e. The Shine–Dalgarno sequence is centered about 10 nucleotides on the 5´-side of the initiator codon.
8. What is the MOST common mechanism of gene regulation?
a. alteration in the transcription phases
b. modulation of the transcription rate
c. modulation of the rate of transcription initiation
d. modulation of the rate of transcription elongation
e. modulation of the rate of transcription termination
9. How many P-loop NTPase domains are encoded in the dynein sequence and how many of them actually bind
nucleotides?
a. 6 encoded; 6 bind
b. 6 encoded; 5 bind
c. 4 encoded; 4 bind
d. 5 encoded; 4 bind
e. 6 encoded; 4 bind
10. Choose the CORRECT statement about taste response.
a. In human beings, only aspartate elicits a taste response.
b. The umami receptor does not participate in the sweet response.
c. In animals, only glutamate elicits a taste response.
d. The umami receptor has one subunit (T1R3).
e. In human beings, only glutamate and aspartate elicit a taste response.
11. Which statement about molecular motors is CORRECT?
a. Myosin moves along filaments of tropomyosin.
b. There is an approximately equal amount of kinesin and myosin genes in the human genome.
c. Dyneins are involved in protein, mRNA, and vesicle transport.
d. Heavy chains of kinesin have a molecular mass greater than 500 kDa.
e. There are four major families of motor proteins in eukaryotic cells.
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ch 31 - 36
12. The sequence identity of protein A and protein B is not in the range of 30%–70%. Those proteins are:
a. OR1 and OR2.
b. T2R1 and T2R5.
c. OR and β-adrenergic receptor.
d. cone photoreceptor and rhodopsin.
e. T1R2 and T1R3.
13. The initiation of actin filament assembly is energetically:
a. favorable and does not require additional components.
b. unfavorable and requires complexes such as Arp 2/3 as nuclei for assembly.
c. unfavorable and requires complexes such as Arp 2/3 as a power stroke for assembly.
d. favorable and requires complexes such as Arp 2/3 as nuclei for assembly.
e. unfavorable and requires complexes such as troponin as nuclei for assembly.
14. What cells secrete antibodies?
a. thymus cells
b. B lymphocytes
c. plasma cells
d. killer T cells
e. helper T cells
15. The first type of antibody that is found in the serum after an antigen is detected is:
a. IgM.
b. IgB.
c. IgG.
d. IgD.
e. IgE.
16. Binding site symmetry determines that:
a. the DNA-binding protein functions as a dimer.
b. the repressor requires a corepressor to function.
c. initiation of transcription will be stimulated by a factor of 50.
d. the DNA-binding protein stimulates transcription.
e. the number of binding sites in the genome is limited.
17. What is a useful instrument in organ transplantation?
a. immunomodulators
b. immunosuppressors
c. immuno induction
d. class switching
e. immune response
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ch 31 - 36
18. Choose the CORRECT statement. Translocon:
a. catalyzes the movement of mRNA by a distance of three nucleotides.
b. binds to the 50S ribosome subunit and hydrolyzes the GTP molecule.
c. stimulates moving peptidyl-tRNA into the P site and shifts the mRNA by one codon, exposing the
next codon to be translated in the A site.
d. is a protein-conducting channel that opens after interaction with the ribosome.
e. due to its dissociation, leaves the ribosome ready to accept the next aminoacyl-tRNA into the A site.
19. Choose the CORRECT statement about structural components involved in cytotoxic activation.
a. Unlike the β chain, the α chain of the T-cell receptor consists of two immunoglobulin domains on the
cell surface and a membrane-spanning domain.
b. The foreign peptide, unlike the MHC protein, can form a complex with the T-cell receptor alone.
c. CD4 is crucial for recognition of the class I MHC–peptide complex.
d. The interaction of CD8 and the constant α3 domain of the class I MHC proteins stabilizes the
interactions between the T cell and its target.
e. The cytoplasmic tail of CD8 contains a docking site for Src.
20. Which structural feature of transcriptional factors is often stabilized by appropriately spaced leucine
residues?
a. activation domain
b. helix-turn-helix proteins
c. bZip unit
d. zinc-finger domains
e. homeodomain in eukaryotes
21. Which statement about the difference between initiation phases of prokaryotes and eukaryotes is FALSE?
a. In prokaryotes, the starting codon is preceded by the Shine–Dalgarno sequence, while in eukaryotes
it is the AUG nearest to the 5´-end of mRNA.
b. A bacterial mRNA can have multiple start sites, while a eukaryotic mRNA has only one.
c. In eukaryotes, pre-mRNA must be processed and transported to the cytoplasm before translation is
initiated.
d. All eukaryotic mRNA can recruit ribosomes for initiation with the use of internal ribosome entry
sites (IRES) rather than a 5´-cap.
e. In eukaryotes, the initiating amino acid is methionine rather than N-formylmethionine.
22. What are the components of the signal recognition particle?
a. 7S RNA and 6 proteins
b. 7S RNA and 7 proteins
c. 6S RNA and 7 proteins
d. 5S RNA and 6 proteins
e. 7S RNA and 5 proteins
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