CEA EXAM PREP 2025 UPDATE NEWEST TESTBANK
COMPLETE 350 MOST TESTED ACTUAL EXAM
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) GRADED A+ !!
An elderly woman has vascular dementia. In the past week she's
become agitated, is making less sense when she talks, and is
sleeping more. Vital signs are: BP=110/76, P=86 regular,
R=12/min, T=97.9 degrees F (36.6 degrees C). What should the
nurse practitioner do? - ANSWER -Assess for an infection
Rationale: Due to the atypical and sometimes subtle
presentation of infections in elderly individuals, healthcare
providers need to maintain a high index of suspicion and
conduct thorough assessments, including physical examination
and appropriate diagnostic tests (such as blood cultures,
urinalysis, chest X-ray, etc.), to promptly identify and treat
infections in this vulnerable population.
Your patient has a new diagnosis of Parkinson's disease and
presents after one month of treatment to urgent care with acute
hypotensive episode with a blood pressure of 90/44. Which
medication is likely responsible for this? - ANSWER -
Carbidopa/levodopa overdose
,Rationale: Use of dopamine promoters in overdose may cause
acute decrease in blood pressure. Carbidopa/Levodopa (is a
commonly used dopamine promoter.
A 37-year-old woman with a history of chronic migraines
presents with unilateral headache, photophobia, and nausea.
She mentions that her headaches have been progressively
worsening. What is the most appropriate next step in
evaluation? - ANSWER -MRI of the brain
Rationale: Unilateral head pain, especially if severe or persistent,
may warrant imaging to rule out structural abnormalities such as
brain tumors, vascular malformations, or cysts. These
conditions can cause localized pain and may require specific
management or intervention. During the MRI, detailed imaging of
the brain's structures and tissues will be obtained, providing
valuable information to assist healthcare providers in
diagnosing the cause of unilateral head pain and guiding
appropriate treatment decisions.
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade
fever. Chest X-ray on PA view shows a left lower chest area of
consolidation adjacent to the left border of the heart
approximately 2 rib spaces above the costophrenic angle. The
lateral x-ray view shows this lesion absent of the window
,posterior to the cardiac silhouette. Which is the most likely
location of this area of focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe - ANSWER -Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question
precisely. If the cardiac margin/silhouette is obliterated by the
mass, the lesion is either right middle lobe or left upper lobe
lingula.
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a
trademark of which of the following diagnoses? - ANSWER -
Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of the
diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction and is common in patients
with thickened hypertrophic myocardium.
An otherwise healthy African American adult male has been
diagnosed with hypertension. He has been restricting his salt
intake, eating a DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop
Hypertension) diet, and exercising more, but his blood pressure
is still elevated. Which is the BEST medication to prescribe him?
-
ANSWER -Calcium channel blocker
, Rationale: African American patients per JNC8 Hypertension
Guidelines should be managed with a dihydropyridine calcium
channel blocker such as amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line
management therapy for hypertension not at goal with DASH
and lifestyle modifications.
Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending aortic
aneurysm.
Which medical imaging is considered standard of care for serial
surveillance? -
ANSWER -CT angiography of the chest
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard of care for
measuring vascular luminal dimensions with contrast. CT PE
protocol is not timed properly for the aorta (it's timed for the
pulmonary artery). Although a plain film is able to catch large
aneurysms at times, they are not able to provide multi-axis
reconstruction needed to accurately measure the size.
Transesophageal echo is not needed to accurately measure the
aorta and requires the patient to undergo sedation which is
unnecessary.
Which of the following medications does not cause beta 1
stimulation? - ANSWER -phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1 receptors. The
remaining three all have beta receptor activity.
COMPLETE 350 MOST TESTED ACTUAL EXAM
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) GRADED A+ !!
An elderly woman has vascular dementia. In the past week she's
become agitated, is making less sense when she talks, and is
sleeping more. Vital signs are: BP=110/76, P=86 regular,
R=12/min, T=97.9 degrees F (36.6 degrees C). What should the
nurse practitioner do? - ANSWER -Assess for an infection
Rationale: Due to the atypical and sometimes subtle
presentation of infections in elderly individuals, healthcare
providers need to maintain a high index of suspicion and
conduct thorough assessments, including physical examination
and appropriate diagnostic tests (such as blood cultures,
urinalysis, chest X-ray, etc.), to promptly identify and treat
infections in this vulnerable population.
Your patient has a new diagnosis of Parkinson's disease and
presents after one month of treatment to urgent care with acute
hypotensive episode with a blood pressure of 90/44. Which
medication is likely responsible for this? - ANSWER -
Carbidopa/levodopa overdose
,Rationale: Use of dopamine promoters in overdose may cause
acute decrease in blood pressure. Carbidopa/Levodopa (is a
commonly used dopamine promoter.
A 37-year-old woman with a history of chronic migraines
presents with unilateral headache, photophobia, and nausea.
She mentions that her headaches have been progressively
worsening. What is the most appropriate next step in
evaluation? - ANSWER -MRI of the brain
Rationale: Unilateral head pain, especially if severe or persistent,
may warrant imaging to rule out structural abnormalities such as
brain tumors, vascular malformations, or cysts. These
conditions can cause localized pain and may require specific
management or intervention. During the MRI, detailed imaging of
the brain's structures and tissues will be obtained, providing
valuable information to assist healthcare providers in
diagnosing the cause of unilateral head pain and guiding
appropriate treatment decisions.
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade
fever. Chest X-ray on PA view shows a left lower chest area of
consolidation adjacent to the left border of the heart
approximately 2 rib spaces above the costophrenic angle. The
lateral x-ray view shows this lesion absent of the window
,posterior to the cardiac silhouette. Which is the most likely
location of this area of focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe - ANSWER -Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question
precisely. If the cardiac margin/silhouette is obliterated by the
mass, the lesion is either right middle lobe or left upper lobe
lingula.
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a
trademark of which of the following diagnoses? - ANSWER -
Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of the
diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction and is common in patients
with thickened hypertrophic myocardium.
An otherwise healthy African American adult male has been
diagnosed with hypertension. He has been restricting his salt
intake, eating a DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop
Hypertension) diet, and exercising more, but his blood pressure
is still elevated. Which is the BEST medication to prescribe him?
-
ANSWER -Calcium channel blocker
, Rationale: African American patients per JNC8 Hypertension
Guidelines should be managed with a dihydropyridine calcium
channel blocker such as amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line
management therapy for hypertension not at goal with DASH
and lifestyle modifications.
Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending aortic
aneurysm.
Which medical imaging is considered standard of care for serial
surveillance? -
ANSWER -CT angiography of the chest
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard of care for
measuring vascular luminal dimensions with contrast. CT PE
protocol is not timed properly for the aorta (it's timed for the
pulmonary artery). Although a plain film is able to catch large
aneurysms at times, they are not able to provide multi-axis
reconstruction needed to accurately measure the size.
Transesophageal echo is not needed to accurately measure the
aorta and requires the patient to undergo sedation which is
unnecessary.
Which of the following medications does not cause beta 1
stimulation? - ANSWER -phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1 receptors. The
remaining three all have beta receptor activity.
