NR667- CEA FNP Prep Full Practice Exam Latest
Update 2025-2026 Actual Exam 325 Questions
with 100% Verified Correct Answers Guaranteed
A+ Verified by Professor
1st line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder:
*buspar
*zoloft
*wellbutrin
*remeron - CORRECT ANSWER: zoloft
Rationale: SSRIs increase serotonin levels in the brain, which helps improve mood and
reduce anxiety. Serotonin is a neurotransmitter associated with mood regulation and
anxiety reduction. By blocking the reabsorption (reuptake) of serotonin into neurons,
Zoloft allows more serotonin to be available in the brain, which can help improve mood
and reduce anxiety.
A "code blue" is called on your patient in the waiting room of your urgent care. When
you arrive, cardiac monitoring is applied and their rhythm appears to be normal sinus
rhythm with a rate of 80. On palpation over the carotid artery, you do not feel a pulse.
What is the name of this cardiac rhythm?
*Idioventricular rhythm
*Junctional Tachycardia
*Wandering Atrial Pacemaker (WAP)
*Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA) - CORRECT ANSWER: Pulseless Electrical Activity
(PEA)
Rationale: PEA appears as a normal rhythm without a pulse. Idioventricular rhythm is
very slow (20-40), Junctional tachycardia and WAP both without pulses are considered
PEA also.
A 13 year old female who is diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia is being treated with
ferrous sulfate. Proper treatment typically leads to the resolution of anemia within:
,*3 months.
*4 weeks.
*8 months.
*2 weeks. - CORRECT ANSWER: 3 months.
Rationale: Due to the time it takes for the underlying deficit to be corrected as well as
the growth of new red blood cells to mature, 3 months are typically needed to show
recovery with treatment for iron deficiency.
A 13-year-old patient returns to the office complaining of intermittent headache for the
past couple of years. Which would be the most concerning symptom? - CORRECT
ANSWER: Stiff neck
Rationale: Inflammation of the membranes (meninges) surrounding the brain and spinal
cord, often caused by a viral or bacterial infection. This can cause severe headache,
stiff neck, fever, and sensitivity to light.
A 14-year-old with sickle cell anemia has recently experienced a sickle cell crisis and
presents for a follow-up examination after a recent hospitalization. It is most important to
continue monitoring growth, development, and: - CORRECT ANSWER: hemoglobin
levels.
Rationale: Chronic monitoring for patients with sickle cell disease includes monitoring of
hemoglobin and hematocrit.
A 16-year-old female in the first month of taking Ortho-Novum 7/7/7 complains of
midcycle spotting. She has not missed any doses and uses no other medication. Which
of the following is appropriate?
*Double dosing for 2 days
*Modifying use
*Changing to Ortho-Novum 1/35
*Providing reassurance - CORRECT ANSWER: Providing reassurance
Rationale: Ortho-Novum 7/7/7 is a combination oral contraceptive pill that contains
varying doses of estrogen and progestin (norethindrone) throughout the cycle. It is a
triphasic pill, meaning that the hormone levels change every seven days to mimic the
,natural menstrual cycle more closely. Mid-cycle spotting can occur for several reasons
while using this contraceptive.
A 19-year-old patient who has used oral contraceptives for 3 years plans to discontinue
the pill at the end of her current cycle to become pregnant. Which of the following daily
supplements would receive the highest priority?
*Ferrous sulfate
*Folic acid
*Multivitamin
*Calcium carbonate - CORRECT ANSWER: Folic acid
Rationale: Folic acid, a B-vitamin (B9), plays a crucial role in ensuring a healthy
pregnancy and reducing the risk of birth defects. Folic acid is crucial in the early
development of the neural tube, which forms the brain and spinal cord. Adequate folic
acid intake can significantly reduce the risk of neural tube defects such as spina bifida
(incomplete closure of the spinal cord) and anencephaly (underdevelopment of the
brain). The neural tube forms very early in pregnancy, often before a woman knows she
is pregnant. Therefore, it is essential to have adequate folic acid levels before and
during early pregnancy.
A 19-year-old presents with a sore throat and anterior cervical adenopathy. Which
causative agent would be suspected?
*Epstein-Barr virus
*Adenovirus
*Haemophilus influenzae
*Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus - CORRECT ANSWER: Group A beta-hemolytic
Streptococcus
Rationale: While this patient could easily represent strep or EBV, the differentiating
factor is the location of the affected lymphadenopathy. As a generalization, posterior
cervical lymphadenopathy is common of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) and anterior cervical
lymphadenopathy is more common with Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus.
, A 2-day old newborn has purulent discharge of the eyes and erythema. History includes
a vaginal birth at term delivered at home. What is the most likely culprit?
*Chlamydia trachomatis infection
*E-coli infection
*Staph infection
*Viral infection - CORRECT ANSWER: Chlamydia trachomatis infection
Rationale: Chlamydia conjunctivitis is usually spread through direct contact with
discharge from the eyes or genital secretions of someone infected with Chlamydia
trachomatis. It can occur in newborns during childbirth (neonatal conjunctivitis) or in
adults through sexual contact (adult inclusion conjunctivitis).
Symptoms: The symptoms can include:
Redness in the eye(s).
Watery or mucopurulent discharge (yellow or green discharge from the eyes).
Swelling of the eyelids.
Sensitivity to light (photophobia).
Itching or burning sensation in the eyes.
A 22-year-old has ASCAS on Pap smear and negative for HPV. The next step is:
*No follow up is needed.
*Repeat HPV in 3 months
*Colposcopy
*Repeat Pap in 6 months - CORRECT ANSWER: Repeat Pap in 6 months
Rationale: For a 22-year-old with ASC-US on Pap smear and a negative HPV test, the
next appropriate step is to repeat the cytology in six months. This approach minimizes
unnecessary interventions while ensuring ongoing monitoring for any potential
progression of cervical cell abnormalities.
A 24-year-old female reports urinary urgency with suprapubic tenderness relieved by
bladder emptying. The patient has been evaluated by urology and urogynecology.
Review of laboratory reports reveal negative urinalysis and cultures, negative results for
Update 2025-2026 Actual Exam 325 Questions
with 100% Verified Correct Answers Guaranteed
A+ Verified by Professor
1st line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder:
*buspar
*zoloft
*wellbutrin
*remeron - CORRECT ANSWER: zoloft
Rationale: SSRIs increase serotonin levels in the brain, which helps improve mood and
reduce anxiety. Serotonin is a neurotransmitter associated with mood regulation and
anxiety reduction. By blocking the reabsorption (reuptake) of serotonin into neurons,
Zoloft allows more serotonin to be available in the brain, which can help improve mood
and reduce anxiety.
A "code blue" is called on your patient in the waiting room of your urgent care. When
you arrive, cardiac monitoring is applied and their rhythm appears to be normal sinus
rhythm with a rate of 80. On palpation over the carotid artery, you do not feel a pulse.
What is the name of this cardiac rhythm?
*Idioventricular rhythm
*Junctional Tachycardia
*Wandering Atrial Pacemaker (WAP)
*Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA) - CORRECT ANSWER: Pulseless Electrical Activity
(PEA)
Rationale: PEA appears as a normal rhythm without a pulse. Idioventricular rhythm is
very slow (20-40), Junctional tachycardia and WAP both without pulses are considered
PEA also.
A 13 year old female who is diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia is being treated with
ferrous sulfate. Proper treatment typically leads to the resolution of anemia within:
,*3 months.
*4 weeks.
*8 months.
*2 weeks. - CORRECT ANSWER: 3 months.
Rationale: Due to the time it takes for the underlying deficit to be corrected as well as
the growth of new red blood cells to mature, 3 months are typically needed to show
recovery with treatment for iron deficiency.
A 13-year-old patient returns to the office complaining of intermittent headache for the
past couple of years. Which would be the most concerning symptom? - CORRECT
ANSWER: Stiff neck
Rationale: Inflammation of the membranes (meninges) surrounding the brain and spinal
cord, often caused by a viral or bacterial infection. This can cause severe headache,
stiff neck, fever, and sensitivity to light.
A 14-year-old with sickle cell anemia has recently experienced a sickle cell crisis and
presents for a follow-up examination after a recent hospitalization. It is most important to
continue monitoring growth, development, and: - CORRECT ANSWER: hemoglobin
levels.
Rationale: Chronic monitoring for patients with sickle cell disease includes monitoring of
hemoglobin and hematocrit.
A 16-year-old female in the first month of taking Ortho-Novum 7/7/7 complains of
midcycle spotting. She has not missed any doses and uses no other medication. Which
of the following is appropriate?
*Double dosing for 2 days
*Modifying use
*Changing to Ortho-Novum 1/35
*Providing reassurance - CORRECT ANSWER: Providing reassurance
Rationale: Ortho-Novum 7/7/7 is a combination oral contraceptive pill that contains
varying doses of estrogen and progestin (norethindrone) throughout the cycle. It is a
triphasic pill, meaning that the hormone levels change every seven days to mimic the
,natural menstrual cycle more closely. Mid-cycle spotting can occur for several reasons
while using this contraceptive.
A 19-year-old patient who has used oral contraceptives for 3 years plans to discontinue
the pill at the end of her current cycle to become pregnant. Which of the following daily
supplements would receive the highest priority?
*Ferrous sulfate
*Folic acid
*Multivitamin
*Calcium carbonate - CORRECT ANSWER: Folic acid
Rationale: Folic acid, a B-vitamin (B9), plays a crucial role in ensuring a healthy
pregnancy and reducing the risk of birth defects. Folic acid is crucial in the early
development of the neural tube, which forms the brain and spinal cord. Adequate folic
acid intake can significantly reduce the risk of neural tube defects such as spina bifida
(incomplete closure of the spinal cord) and anencephaly (underdevelopment of the
brain). The neural tube forms very early in pregnancy, often before a woman knows she
is pregnant. Therefore, it is essential to have adequate folic acid levels before and
during early pregnancy.
A 19-year-old presents with a sore throat and anterior cervical adenopathy. Which
causative agent would be suspected?
*Epstein-Barr virus
*Adenovirus
*Haemophilus influenzae
*Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus - CORRECT ANSWER: Group A beta-hemolytic
Streptococcus
Rationale: While this patient could easily represent strep or EBV, the differentiating
factor is the location of the affected lymphadenopathy. As a generalization, posterior
cervical lymphadenopathy is common of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) and anterior cervical
lymphadenopathy is more common with Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus.
, A 2-day old newborn has purulent discharge of the eyes and erythema. History includes
a vaginal birth at term delivered at home. What is the most likely culprit?
*Chlamydia trachomatis infection
*E-coli infection
*Staph infection
*Viral infection - CORRECT ANSWER: Chlamydia trachomatis infection
Rationale: Chlamydia conjunctivitis is usually spread through direct contact with
discharge from the eyes or genital secretions of someone infected with Chlamydia
trachomatis. It can occur in newborns during childbirth (neonatal conjunctivitis) or in
adults through sexual contact (adult inclusion conjunctivitis).
Symptoms: The symptoms can include:
Redness in the eye(s).
Watery or mucopurulent discharge (yellow or green discharge from the eyes).
Swelling of the eyelids.
Sensitivity to light (photophobia).
Itching or burning sensation in the eyes.
A 22-year-old has ASCAS on Pap smear and negative for HPV. The next step is:
*No follow up is needed.
*Repeat HPV in 3 months
*Colposcopy
*Repeat Pap in 6 months - CORRECT ANSWER: Repeat Pap in 6 months
Rationale: For a 22-year-old with ASC-US on Pap smear and a negative HPV test, the
next appropriate step is to repeat the cytology in six months. This approach minimizes
unnecessary interventions while ensuring ongoing monitoring for any potential
progression of cervical cell abnormalities.
A 24-year-old female reports urinary urgency with suprapubic tenderness relieved by
bladder emptying. The patient has been evaluated by urology and urogynecology.
Review of laboratory reports reveal negative urinalysis and cultures, negative results for
