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WGU D116 Advanced Pharmacology – Part 1 Study Guide and Comprehensive Pharmacology Review

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This document covers the key pharmacology concepts included in Part 1 of WGU’s D116 Advanced Pharmacology course, focusing on drug classifications, mechanisms of action, therapeutic uses, contraindications, and major adverse effects. It summarizes essential content needed for competency assessments, including pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, and clinical decision-making. Additional context helps clarify high-yield topics commonly emphasized in advanced nursing programs.

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WGU D116 Pharmacology review Part 1, Advanced Pharmacology D116 Study Guide


A patient presents to an emergency room complaining of palpitations and irregular heartbeat.
The advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) places the patient on a cardiac monitor and
observes atrial fibrillation. The APRN orders dofetilide.

How should the APRN recommend this medication be taken? - *answers *YES With food or an
empty stomach

A 70-year-old male calls a clinic complaining of chest pain that started after having sexual
activity. He took sildenafil 50 mg about eight hours ago. He has nitroglycerin 0.3 mg on hand.

How should the advanced practice registered nurse respond? - *answers *Do not take the
nitroglycerin and call 911



Taking the medications together can cause a serious drop in blood pressure leading to
cardiovascular collapse.

A patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder who is in a mental health clinic is discussing the
possibility of beginning lithium with an advanced practice registered nurse (APRN). The patient
expresses understanding and wishes to proceed with treatment. The APRN explains to the
patient that this medication requires specific lab monitoring and wants to draw baseline labs.
The patient asks why the test is needed.

Which explanation should the APRN provide to this patient? - *answers *A baseline blood urea
nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine (CREA) level needs to be drawn to assess kidney function prior to
treatment.



This drug can cause decreased renal function, and a baseline should be drawn for future
comparison.

An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is reviewing the medications that will be
commonly experienced with a new nurse to determine whether the drugs are safe for the
patients. The new nurse is given a scenario where a patient is being prescribed sildenafil 25 mg
po prn, a prototype drug for erectile dysfunction.

Which patient may take this drug safely? - *answers *YES A 54-year-male with a medical history
of hypertension, mild eczema, and previous history of a urolithiasis where all is well controlled
and there are no current complications

,WGU D116 Pharmacology review Part 1, Advanced Pharmacology D116 Study Guide


A 30-year-old patient presents to a primary care clinic with a history of anxiety. The advanced
practice registered nurse reviews the mechanism of action by which many
neuropharmacological agents act and decides to prescribe citalopram.

What is the mechanism of action of this medication? - *answers *YES Influences receptor
activity on target cells



Correct! This medication influences the activity in the receptors, and it targets cells.

A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of Huntington disease. On admission, the patient exhibits
uncontrolled twitching, difficulty walking, trouble swallowing, confusion, and memory loss. The
advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) prescribes baclofen.

What is the mechanism of action of this medication? - *answers *NO Modulates the effects of
glutamate at NMDA receptors

YES Inhibits neurotransmitter GABA

NO Halts the breakdown of acetylcholine by acetylcholinesterase

Alters the synthesis and release of norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine

Incorrect. Cholinesterase inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine by
acetylcholinesterase. They are used in patients with Alzheimer's.

Correct! Huntington's disease involves a deficiency of the neurotransmitters acetylcholine and
y-aminobutyric acid in the basal ganglia and extrapyramidal system.

A 21-year-old patient accompanied by a parent comes to a clinic for an emergency visit with an
advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) following a seizure. Upon interviewing the patient
and the parent, the APRN determines that the seizure is classified by marked impairment of
consciousness and is followed by a period of central nervous system (CNS) depression.

Which type of seizure is this patient experiencing? - *answers *Atonic

NO Myoclonic

YES Tonic-clonic

Absence

Incorrect. Myoclonic seizures consist of a sudden muscle contraction that lasts for just one
second.

,WGU D116 Pharmacology review Part 1, Advanced Pharmacology D116 Study Guide


Correct! A tonic-clonic seizure is a type of seizure that is also called a convulsion. This type of
seizure can include muscle stiffness, loss of consciousness, and body jerking.

A patient has been taking oral oxycodone every six hours for back pain during the past three
years. The patient suddenly decides to stop taking the pain medication and is trying an
alternative therapy without a clinician's approval.

Which risk is of clinical concern? - *answers *YES Physical dependence

Correct! The patient suddenly stopping the medication will cause physical symptoms that can
range from nausea to seizures.

An advanced practice registered nurse has diagnosed a 44-year-old male with depression. A
plan is developed to start treatment with medication. The patient has a history of sexual
dysfunction and is concerned about taking medication that may worsen this condition.

Which antidepressant has the benefit of enhancing libido? - *answers *YES Bupropion



Correct! Bupropion does not cause sexual dysfunction. This will help the patient with a history
of sexual dysfunction. This will enhance the patient's libido, which will help with both
depression and sexual dysfunction.

A patient is wheezing and short of breath. The nurse assesses a heart rate of 88 beats per
minute, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 124/78 mm Hg.
The prescriber orders a nonspecific beta-agonist medication.

Besides evaluating the patient for a reduction in respiratory distress, the nurse should monitor
for which side effect? - *answers *YES Tachycardia



Correct! Beta-agonists are used for asthma because of their beta2 effects on bronchial smooth
muscle, causing dilation. Beta1 effects cause tachycardia and hypertension. Beta receptors do
not exert effects on the bladder.

A patient is experiencing toxic side effects from atropine, including delirium and hallucinations.
Which medication should the provider administer? - *answers *YES Physostigmine



Correct! Physostigmine is the drug of choice for treating poisoning from atropine and other
drugs that cause muscarinic blockade. Donepezil is used to treat Alzheimer disease.
Edrophonium is used to distinguish between a myasthenic crisis and a cholinesterase inhibitor

, WGU D116 Pharmacology review Part 1, Advanced Pharmacology D116 Study Guide


overdose. Neostigmine does not cross the blood-brain barrier and would not effectively treat
this patient's central nervous system (CNS) symptoms.

A patient brought to the emergency department requires sutures. The prescriber orders a local
anesthetic with epinephrine.

The epinephrine is ordered to ___________. - *answers *allow a reduced dose of the
anesthetic



Correct! Epinephrine prolongs absorption of the anesthetic because it is an alpha1 agonist. It is
frequently combined with a local anesthetic for this purpose so the amount of anesthetic
required may be reduced. Local anesthetics do not induce hypertension; therefore, epinephrine
would not be needed to prevent it. Epinephrine does not act as an antiemetic and would not
reduce anesthetic-induced nausea. Epinephrine is not used to reduce the pain of an injection.

A patient has been diagnosed with Parkinson disease (PD) and begins treatment with carbidopa.
After several months of therapy, the patient reports no change in symptoms.

As the provider, you should do which of the following? - *answers *Increase the dose of
carbidopa

Discuss the "on-off" phenomenon

Reevaluate the diagnosis

NO Add a dopamine agonist

Incorrect. Adding a dopamine agonist is not indicated.

A patient who is taking oral contraceptives begins taking valproic acid for seizures. After a week
of therapy with valproic acid, the patient tells the nurse that she is experiencing nausea.

What should the nurse do? - *answers *YES Ask the patient if she is taking the valproic acid
with food because taking the drug on an empty stomach can cause gastrointestinal side effects



Correct! Gastrointestinal effects, including nausea, vomiting, and indigestion, are common with
valproic acid and can be minimized by taking the drug with food or using an enteric-coated
product. Hyperammonemia can occur when valproic acid is combined with topiramate. Signs of
pregnancy usually do not occur within a week, so this is less likely. Hepatotoxicity is a rare
adverse effect.

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