NSG 5000 Quiz 1 to Quiz 5 / NSG5000 Quiz 1 to Quiz 5: South University (Latest 2020, 100% Correct, Already graded A)

NSG 5000 Quiz 1 to Quiz 5 / NSG5000 Quiz 1 to Quiz 5: South University 1. Question : Current research supports the belief that after heart muscle injury, the damage: Student Answer: Remains indefinitely because cardiac cells do not reproduce Is repaired by newly matured cardiomyocytes Gradually decreases in size as mitotic cell division occurs Is replaced by hypertrophy of remaining cells 2. Question : The cellular uptake of the nutrient cholesterol depends on which process? Student Answer: Receptormediated exocytosis Antiport system Receptormediated endocytosis Passive transport 3. Question : Which statement is true about phagocytosis? Student Answer: Phagocytosis is an example of exocytosis. Phagocytosis is dependent on small vesicles. Phagocytosis involves the ingestion of bacteria. Phagocytosis focuses on solute molecules. 4. Question : Lead poisoning affects the nervous system by: Student Answer: Interfering with the function of neurotransmitters Inhibiting the production of myelin around nerves Increasing the resting membrane potential Altering the transport of potassium into the nerves 5. Question : At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because the: Student Answer: Interstitial hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary hydrostatic pressure. Capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary oncotic pressure. Interstitial oncotic pressure is higher than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure. Capillary oncotic pressure is lower than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure. 6. Question : Physiologic pH is maintained at approximately 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of: Student Answer: 20:1 1:20 10:2 10:5 7. Question : Which organic compounds facilitate transportation across the cell membrane by acting as receptors, transport channels for electrolytes, and enzymes to drive active pumps? Student Answer: Lipids Proteases Proteins Carbohydrates 8. Question : The most common cause of hypermagnesemia is: Student Answer: Hepatitis Renal failure Trauma to the hypothalamus Pancreatitis 9. Question : During cell injury caused by hypoxia, an increase in the osmotic pressure occurs within the cell because: Student Answer: Plasma proteins enter the cell. The adenosine triphosphatase (ATPasedriven pump is stronger during hypoxia. Sodium chloride enters the cell. An influx of glucose occurs through the injured cell membrane. 10. Question : The mammary glands enlarge during pregnancy primarily as a consequence of hormonal: Student Answer: Atrophy Hyperplasia Anaplasia Dysplasia 11. Question : Which cell component is capable of cellular autodigestion when it is released during cell injury? Student Answer: Ribosome Golgi complex Smooth endoplasmic reticulum Lysosome 12. Question : Which type of cell adaptation occurs when normal columnar ciliated epithelial cells of the bronchial lining have been replaced by stratified squamous epithelial cells? Student Answer: Hyperplasia Metaplasia Dysplasia Anaplasia 13. Question : What occurs during exocytosis? . Student Answer: Macromolecules can be secreted across eukaryotic cell membranes. All substances are secreted into the cellular matrix. No repairs in the plasma membrane can take place. Solute molecules flow freely into and out of the cell. 14. Question : Which structure prevents water soluble molecules from entering cells across the plasma membrane? Student Answer: Carbohydrate chains Glycoprotein channels Membrane channel proteins Lipid bilayer 15. Question : The calcium and phosphate balance is influenced by which three substances? Student Answer: Parathyroid hormone, vasopressin, and vitamin D Parathyroid hormone, calcitonin, and vitamin D Thyroid hormone, vasopressin, and vitamin A Thyroid hormone, calcitonin, and vitamin A 16. Question : What is the sequence of steps in the development of a digestive enzyme by the pancreas cells from the initial transcription to the release from the cells? Student Answer: The enzyme is transcribed from DNA by ribonucleic acid (RNA) in the nucleus, proceeds to the ribosomes for synthesis, and is transported in secretory vesicles to the cell membrane. transported in an encapsulated membrane to the cell membrane. The enzyme is transcribed by the mitochondria in the nucleus, proceeds to the ribosomes for synthesis, and is transported in a cytoskeleton to the cell membrane. The enzyme is transcribed from DNA by RNA in the nucleus, proceeds to the Golgi complex for synthesis, and is transported in the cytosol to the cell membrane. 17. Question : In hypoxic injury, sodium enters the cell and causes swelling because: Student Answer: The cell membrane permeability increases for sodium during periods of hypoxia. ATP is insufficient to maintain the pump that keeps sodium out of the cell. The lactic acid produced by the hypoxia binds with sodium in the cell. Sodium cannot be transported to the cell membrane during hypoxia. 18. Question : A patient’s blood gases reveal the following findings: pH, 7.3; bicarbonate (HCO3) 27 mEq/L; and carbon dioxide (CO2), 58 mm Hg. What is the interpretation of these findings? Student Answer: Respiratory alkalosis Metabolic acidosis Respiratory acidosis Metabolic alkalosis 19. Question : Low plasma albumin causes edema as a result of a reduction in which pressure? Student Answer: Capillary hydrostatic Interstitial hydrostatic Plasma oncotic Interstitial oncotic 20. Question : Which of the following is an effect of ionizing radiation exposure? Student Answer: Respiratory distress Sun intolerance DNA aberrations Death NSG 5000 Quiz 2/ NSG5000 Quiz 2: South University Question 1 How does the advance practice nurse (APN) with knowledge and skills to diagnosis, treat and manage acute and chronic conditions exhibit the competency of direct clinical practice? Question 2 What action by the Nurse Executive (NE) best conveys to her nurse managers(NM)Transformational Leadership Question 3 The CNS and the APRN have designed a comprehensive discharge plan for patients with new onset Type 2 DM. Which role competency will the CNS use to effectively implement the new plan? Question 4 The APN is challenged by a patient case and wants to justify to the collaborating physician the clinical decision proposed in the treatment plan. What core competency provides confirmation to clinical decision making Question 5 What best describes situational leadership? NSG 5000 Quiz 3 / NSG5000 Quiz 3: South University 1. Anne and Laura work as NP partners in an NP practice. Anne learns that Laura frequently changes patient’s narcotic prescriptions to a different dosage, and then requests that the patient give her the remaining narcotic medications. Some patients have called Anne aside to tell her of this. How can Laura’s actions best be characterized? a. Laura is committing theft. b. Laura’s behavior is not illegal but is unethical. c. Requesting the patient’s medication is within Laura’s scope of practice. d. This appears to be diversion of medications by Laura. 2. A nurse practitioner (NP) knows that she is HIV positive. She is employed in a private clinic and performs wellness exams on ambulatory adults. The NP: a. Is obligated to inform her employer of her HIV status. b. Is obligated to inform her patients of her HIV status. c. Is under no obligation to inform anyone. d. Is under obligation to inform the patient if she performs invasive procedures. 3. A liability policy that pays claims only during the period that the policy is active is termed: a. claims made policy. b. tail coverage. c. liability protection. d. bobtail coverage. 4. A NP examined a patient who had been bitten by her husband during an assault. There were numerous bite marks and lacerations on the patient’s forearms. The nurse practitioner sutured the lacerations, though this was contraindicated because of the highly infectious nature of human bites. The patient suffered no ill effects after suturing. How can this be described? a. This is negligence. b. This was a fortunate situation for the patient. c. This is malpractice. d. This is poor judgment and malpractice. 5. Concrete strategies used to keep the client’s attention as the NP institutes client education include a. providing the education session immediately after lunch. b. going over the materials more than once. c. translating theoretical information into practical terms. d. using repetition. 6. According to the health belief model, motivation, or readiness to act, is determined by which of the following components a. perceived threat, efficacy, benefits of action, and perceived barriers to action b. education and positive reinforcement c. predisposing factors, reinforcing factors, and enabling factors. d. self-efficacy theory and perceived ability to act 7. Which is the best method for evaluating the efficacy of a new clinical intervention? a. A case report b. A descriptive study c. A randomized, controlled clinical trial d. A correlational study 8. As an APRN, you begin a new job in a small practice with two other physicians. You have been hired to be a partner in the practice, but the eldest partner is reluctant to allow you to take on new clients. This is an example of a. role stress b. role strain c. role insufficiency. d. role conflict. 8. Which of the following statements is true about case management? Case Management a. oversees the client throughout acute care hospitalization. b. is organized around a system of interdisciplinary resources and services. c. depends on physician-driven leadership to oversee the illness episode. d. is applicable to the rehabilitative portion of the episode of the illness. 9. Usual and customary refers to a. an insurance term for how a charge compares with charges made to another person receiving similar services and supplies. b. How an insurer evaluates the need for an ordered diagnostic test. c. A comparison of interventions across populations. d. How much an insurer will charge to provide coverage? 10. Reviewing the literature refers to the ability to research existing literature about a specific problem, whether clinical or policy. The most important skill necessary to performing a thorough review of the literature is a. talking with colleagues about the sources. b. attending a research conference. c. critiquing the findings and synthesizing the results. d. reviewing clinical journals. NSG 5000 Quiz 4 / NSG5000 Quiz 4 (Latest): South University Question 1 (1 point) Of the following statements, which three are accurate concepts to apply to APRNs? Question 1 options: Incorporation and integration of business practices with clinical practice expertise is essential. No one program can prepare for all avenues of practice with specialty practices becoming more common and require additional endorsements and certifications Advanced Practice Nursing is a replacement to medical practice. More studies differentiating basic from advanced practice nursing and the impact on patient outcomes are needed. Question 2 (1 point) What three triads provide a framework for Advance practice health policy issues? Question 2 options: a) expert, equal and comparable care solutions to that of physicians b) cost-quality-access patient centered solutions c) population foci, preventive and health promotion solutions d) collective, coalitions and unity of all nursing organizations is the solution Question 3 (1 point) In 2008, the AACN, NCSBN, and other organizations representing APNs formed the APRN dialogue group to produce a model that includes important definitions, roles and titles to be used, population foci, specialties, and preparation for emerging new APRN roles. This model is known as the: Question 3 options: a) Hamric’s Integrative Model of Advanced Practice Nursing b) Calkin’s Model of Advanced Practice Nursing c) Consensus Model for Advanced Practice Registered Nurse Regulation d) Strong Memorial Hospital’s Model of Advanced Practice Nursing Question 4 (1 point) What are the three global issue(s) related to impeding advance practice: Question 4 options: Titling Lack of Physician support and required supervision Role conflict and power struggles between basic nursing and advance nursing practice Utilization of EBR to guide standards of practice Question 5 (1 point) What is the first organizational step of influencing health policy to make changes? Question 5 options: a) defining and documenting problems b) drafting rules c) educating policymakers on the problems d) educating the public on the need for change NSG 5000 Quiz 5 / NSG5000 Quiz 5: South University Question 1 (1 point) The scope of practice of an Adult/Gerontological PC NP allows evaluation of what age group of patients? Question 3 options: Newborns to elderly 21 years and up 13 years and up only 65 and older Save Question 2 (1 point) The AGNP working in primary care is made aware of a denial of services for one of her patients. Which action demonstrates an appropriate competency and skill? Question 4 options: mentoring staff to investigate the patient’s needs acceptance and articulation to explain to the patient the reason for denial advocacy through communication to the denying agency and reviewing other options articulating to the collaborating physician as likely the MD can make this happen Save Question 3 (1 point) What best demonstrates the advanced practice registered nurse professional leadership? Question 1 options: adding clinical protocols to the advanced practice nurse's scope of practice. comparing the workplace roles of the registered nurse and the advanced practice nurse. creating a task force to address scope of practice concerns. lobbying to eliminate continuing education requirements. Save Question 4 (1 point) Which APN role was purposely created to be broad in scope but in recent years that broadness has caused challenges understanding exactly what they can do? Question 2 options: CNS CNM CRNA NP Save Question 5 (1 point) The adult-gerontology primary care nurse practitioner is appointed to a hospital's multidisciplinary medical ethics review committee. What is the role of the nurse practitioner on this committee?: Question 5 options: evaluate standards, risks, benefits, and outcomes. identify how to anticipate and resolve similar future situations. investigate the need for disciplinary action. obtain agreement of all parties with a chosen solution. Save ________________________________________