1
DISCOUNTED CASH FLOW MODEL 2025 ACTUAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED
A+
What's the basic concept behind a Discounted Cash Flow analysis? - (ANSWER)The
concept is that you value a company based on the present value of its Free Cash
Flows far into the future.
You divide the future into a "near future" period of 5-10 years and then calculate,
project, discount, and add up those Free Cash Flows; and then there's also a "far
future" period for everything beyond that, which you can't estimate as precisely,
but which you can approximate using different approaches.
You need to discount everything back to its present value because money today is
worth more than money tomorrow.
Walk me through a DCF. - (ANSWER)"A DCF values a company based on the
Present Value of its Cash Flows and the Present Value of its Terminal Value.
First, you project a company's financials using assumptions for revenue growth,
margins, and the Change in Operating Assets and Liabilities; then you calculate
Free Cash Flow for each year, which you discount and sum up to get to the Net
Present Value. The Discount Rate is usually the Weighted Average Cost of Capital.
Once you have the present value of the Free Cash Flows, you determine the
company's Terminal Value, using either the Multiples Method or the Gordon
, 2
Growth Method, and then you discount that back to its Net Present Value using
the Discount Rate.
Finally, you add the two together to determine the company's Enterprise Value."
Walk me through how you get from Revenue to Free Cash Flow in the projections.
- (ANSWER)First, confirm that they are asking for Unlevered Free Cash Flow (Free
Cash Flow to Firm). If so:
Subtract COGS and Operating Expenses from Revenue to get to Operating Income
(EBIT) - or just use the EBIT margin you've assumed.
Then, multiply by (1 - Tax Rate), add back Depreciation, Amortization, and other
non-cash charges, and factor in the Change in Operating Assets and Liabilities. If
Assets increase by more than Liabilities, this is a negative; otherwise it's positive.
Finally, subtract Capital Expenditures to calculate Unlevered Free Cash Flow.
Levered Free Cash Flow (FCFE) is similar, but you must also subtract the Net
Interest Expense before multiplying by (1 - Tax Rate), and you must also subtract
Mandatory Debt Repayments at the end.
What's the point of Free Cash Flow, anyway? What are you trying to do? -
(ANSWER)The idea is that you're replicating the Cash Flow Statement, but only
including recurring, predictable items. And in the case of Unlevered Free Cash
Flow, you also exclude the impact of Debt entirely.
, 3
That's why everything in Cash Flow from Investing except for CapEx is excluded,
and why the entire Cash Flow from Financing section is excluded (the only
exception being Mandatory Debt Repayments for Levered FCF).
Why do you use 5 or 10 years for the "near future" DCF projections? -
(ANSWER)That's about as far as you can reasonably predict for most companies.
Less than 5 years would be too short to be useful, and more than 10 years is too
difficult to project for most companies.
Is there a valid reason why we might sometimes project 10 years or more
anyway? - (ANSWER)You might sometimes do this if it's a cyclical industry, such as
chemicals, because it may be important to show the entire cycle from low to high.
What do you usually use for the Discount Rate? - (ANSWER)In a Unlevered DCF
analysis, you use WACC (Weighted Average Cost of Capital), which reflects the
"Cost" of Equity, Debt, and Preferred Stock. In a Levered DCF analysis, you use
Cost of Equity instead.
If I'm working with a public company in a DCF, how do I move from Enterprise
Value to its Implied per Share Value? - (ANSWER)Once you get to Enterprise
Value, ADD Cash and then SUBTRACT Debt, Preferred Stock, and Noncontrolling
Interests (and any other debt-like items) to get to Equity Value.
Then you divide by the company's share count (factoring in all dilutive securities)
to determine the implied per-share price.
Let's say we do this and find that the Implied per Share Value is $10.00. The
company's current share price is $5.00. What does this mean? - (ANSWER)By
, 4
itself, this does not mean much - you have to look at a range of outputs from a
DCF rather than just a single number. So you would see what the Implied per
Share Value is under different assumptions for the Discount Rate, revenue
growth, margins, and so on.
If you consistently find that it's greater than the company's current share price,
then the analysis might tell you that the company is undervalued; it might be
overvalued if it's consistently less than the current share price across all ranges.
An alternative to the DCF is the Dividend Discount Model (DDM). How is it
different in the general case (i.e. for a normal company, not a commercial bank or
insurance firm?) - (ANSWER)The setup is similar: you still project revenue and
expenses over a 5-10 year period, and you still calculate Terminal Value.
The difference is that you do not calculate Free Cash Flow - instead, you stop at
Net Income and assume that Dividends Issued are a percentage of Net Income,
and then you discount those Dividends back to their present value using the Cost
of Equity.
Then, you add those up and add them to the present value of the Terminal Value,
which you might base on a P / E multiple instead.
Finally, a Dividend Discount Model gets you the company's Equity Value rather
than its Enterprise Value since you're using metrics that include interest income
and expense.
DISCOUNTED CASH FLOW MODEL 2025 ACTUAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED
A+
What's the basic concept behind a Discounted Cash Flow analysis? - (ANSWER)The
concept is that you value a company based on the present value of its Free Cash
Flows far into the future.
You divide the future into a "near future" period of 5-10 years and then calculate,
project, discount, and add up those Free Cash Flows; and then there's also a "far
future" period for everything beyond that, which you can't estimate as precisely,
but which you can approximate using different approaches.
You need to discount everything back to its present value because money today is
worth more than money tomorrow.
Walk me through a DCF. - (ANSWER)"A DCF values a company based on the
Present Value of its Cash Flows and the Present Value of its Terminal Value.
First, you project a company's financials using assumptions for revenue growth,
margins, and the Change in Operating Assets and Liabilities; then you calculate
Free Cash Flow for each year, which you discount and sum up to get to the Net
Present Value. The Discount Rate is usually the Weighted Average Cost of Capital.
Once you have the present value of the Free Cash Flows, you determine the
company's Terminal Value, using either the Multiples Method or the Gordon
, 2
Growth Method, and then you discount that back to its Net Present Value using
the Discount Rate.
Finally, you add the two together to determine the company's Enterprise Value."
Walk me through how you get from Revenue to Free Cash Flow in the projections.
- (ANSWER)First, confirm that they are asking for Unlevered Free Cash Flow (Free
Cash Flow to Firm). If so:
Subtract COGS and Operating Expenses from Revenue to get to Operating Income
(EBIT) - or just use the EBIT margin you've assumed.
Then, multiply by (1 - Tax Rate), add back Depreciation, Amortization, and other
non-cash charges, and factor in the Change in Operating Assets and Liabilities. If
Assets increase by more than Liabilities, this is a negative; otherwise it's positive.
Finally, subtract Capital Expenditures to calculate Unlevered Free Cash Flow.
Levered Free Cash Flow (FCFE) is similar, but you must also subtract the Net
Interest Expense before multiplying by (1 - Tax Rate), and you must also subtract
Mandatory Debt Repayments at the end.
What's the point of Free Cash Flow, anyway? What are you trying to do? -
(ANSWER)The idea is that you're replicating the Cash Flow Statement, but only
including recurring, predictable items. And in the case of Unlevered Free Cash
Flow, you also exclude the impact of Debt entirely.
, 3
That's why everything in Cash Flow from Investing except for CapEx is excluded,
and why the entire Cash Flow from Financing section is excluded (the only
exception being Mandatory Debt Repayments for Levered FCF).
Why do you use 5 or 10 years for the "near future" DCF projections? -
(ANSWER)That's about as far as you can reasonably predict for most companies.
Less than 5 years would be too short to be useful, and more than 10 years is too
difficult to project for most companies.
Is there a valid reason why we might sometimes project 10 years or more
anyway? - (ANSWER)You might sometimes do this if it's a cyclical industry, such as
chemicals, because it may be important to show the entire cycle from low to high.
What do you usually use for the Discount Rate? - (ANSWER)In a Unlevered DCF
analysis, you use WACC (Weighted Average Cost of Capital), which reflects the
"Cost" of Equity, Debt, and Preferred Stock. In a Levered DCF analysis, you use
Cost of Equity instead.
If I'm working with a public company in a DCF, how do I move from Enterprise
Value to its Implied per Share Value? - (ANSWER)Once you get to Enterprise
Value, ADD Cash and then SUBTRACT Debt, Preferred Stock, and Noncontrolling
Interests (and any other debt-like items) to get to Equity Value.
Then you divide by the company's share count (factoring in all dilutive securities)
to determine the implied per-share price.
Let's say we do this and find that the Implied per Share Value is $10.00. The
company's current share price is $5.00. What does this mean? - (ANSWER)By
, 4
itself, this does not mean much - you have to look at a range of outputs from a
DCF rather than just a single number. So you would see what the Implied per
Share Value is under different assumptions for the Discount Rate, revenue
growth, margins, and so on.
If you consistently find that it's greater than the company's current share price,
then the analysis might tell you that the company is undervalued; it might be
overvalued if it's consistently less than the current share price across all ranges.
An alternative to the DCF is the Dividend Discount Model (DDM). How is it
different in the general case (i.e. for a normal company, not a commercial bank or
insurance firm?) - (ANSWER)The setup is similar: you still project revenue and
expenses over a 5-10 year period, and you still calculate Terminal Value.
The difference is that you do not calculate Free Cash Flow - instead, you stop at
Net Income and assume that Dividends Issued are a percentage of Net Income,
and then you discount those Dividends back to their present value using the Cost
of Equity.
Then, you add those up and add them to the present value of the Terminal Value,
which you might base on a P / E multiple instead.
Finally, a Dividend Discount Model gets you the company's Equity Value rather
than its Enterprise Value since you're using metrics that include interest income
and expense.
