ANCC FNP review questions Latest Update 2025-
2026 Actual Exam 125 Questions with 100%
Verified Correct Answers Guaranteed A+ Verified
by Professor
43-year-old patient with past medical history of mild asthma in his childhood presents
for management of hypertension. He has heard that some antihypertensive medications
can worsen breathing in asthmatic patients. Which of the following medications would
be most likely to cause bronchospasm in a patient with asthma?
A. Metoprolol
B. Atenolol
C. Propranolol
D. Bisoprolol - CORRECT ANSWER: Correct Answer: C. Propranolol
Propranolol is the only beta-blocker listed with is non-selective. Beta-blockers can be
cardioselective, or non- selective. Cardioselectivity refers to the ability to affect
predominantly beta 1 receptors rather than beta 2 receptors. Beta 1 receptors are
located mainly in the heart and mediate the sympathetic nervous system's direct effects
on the heart. Beta 2 receptors are located predominantly in the peripheral vascular
system and other organs like the lungs. Although all beta-blockers affect beta receptors,
some affect subsets of receptors differently. This has significant consequences in terms
of side effects, as beta-blockers are known to cause extra-cardiac symptoms such as
worsened bronchospasms in asthmatics. Although beta-1 selective blockers are safer
than nonselective beta blockers, and would be preferred in patients with asthma, they
should still be used with caution in patients with asthma, particularly in those with
severe obstruction or markedly reduced pulmonary function at baseline.
Incorrect Answers:
A. B. and D. These are all cardioselective beta-blockers.
A 10-month-old girl with no prior medical history presents to the emergency room with
signs of bronchiolitis. The patient's parents report that she developed a cough 3 days
ago, and today she developed rhinorrhea, wheezing, and a fever of 100.4°F. Physical
,examination reveals a temperature of 100.5°F, and wheezing is evident on pulmonary
exam. Physical examination also reveals right tympanic membrane fullness, with loss of
light reflex and erythema. The patient keeps pulling on her ear. It is December, and this
is the 10th patient this month who has presented with the same symptoms. Which of the
following is the most appropriate therapy for this patient?
A. Amoxicillin with analgesics
B. Bronchodilators
C. Corticosteroids
D. Ribavirin - CORRECT ANSWER: Correct Answer: A. Amoxicillin with analgesics
The patient's age, lower respiratory tract symptoms, and the spike in cases seen during
this time of year indicate that the patient most likely has respiratory syncytial virus
(RSV). RSV is a viral infection that attacks the lower respiratory tract, causing
bronchiolitis or pneumonia. While RSV commonly affects young children, it can be seen
in adults. While uncomplicated RSV is treated with supportive therapy, the patient also
has evidence of otitis media. The 2013 AAP/AAFP guideline recommends either
immediate treatment or observation (with pain control) for children between 6 and 24
months with unilateral nonsevere AOM and for children ≥24 months with unilateral or
bilateral nonsevere AOM. Since this child has evidence of unilateral AOM, either
observation or treatment with antibiotics are appropriate. Individually randomized trials
that used stringent diagnostic criteria demonstrated that children under the age of two
benefits from antibiotic therapy, including those with nonsevere unilateral AOM.
Incorrect Answers:
B. Bronchodilators are not recommended for the routine treatment of RSV bronchiolitis.
While bronchodilators may provide modest short-term improvement, they do not
improve long-term outcomes and may have adverse effects. Bronchodilators also
increase the cost of care and should only be used if a single trial leads to a prompt
favorable response.
C. Corticosteroids are not recommended for the routine treatment of RSV bronchiolitis
in infants. However, corticosteroids may be helpful in older children and adults who
have RSV-associated bronchial reactivity, especially those who have a history of
asthma that may have been exacerbated by the recent RSV infection. Corticosteroids
can potentially decrease bronchial swelling and airway obstruction through their inh
,A 12-year-old boy complains of abrupt onset of scrotal pain upon awakening this
morning. He has had nausea and vomiting for the past hour. He is afebrile and his heart
rate is 100/minute. His scrotum is red and swollen and the right testicle is higher than
the left. When you stroke the inner thigh on the right, there is no movement of the
testicle. Which of the following is an indicated treatment for this condition?
A. Manual reduction
B. Antibiotics
C. Topical azole cream
D. Chemotherapy - CORRECT ANSWER: Correct Answer: A. Manual reduction
The patient, in this case, has a presentation consistent with testicular torsion. Patients
with testicular torsion are usually young men between the ages of 10 and 20. They will
complain of sudden onset of scrotal pain, usually in the middle of the night or upon
awakening. The scrotum will be red and swollen and the affected testicle is usually
positioned higher than the unaffected testicle, often closer to the body. The cremasteric
reflex refers to elevation of the testicle when the ipsilateral thigh is stroked. This reflex is
absent in testicular torsion. Testicular torsion is a urologic emergency. Torsion interrupts
the blood supply to the testicle and permanent damage ensues if not reduced within 6
hours. After 24 hours, the testicle will become gangrenous and must be surgically
removed. The nurse practitioner should call 911 and the patient should undergo Doppler
ultrasound in the ED. Manual detorsion can be accomplished in the ED by the "open
book" maneuver, but a surgical reduction is necessary if a manual reduction is
unsuccessful.
Incorrect Answers:
B. Antibiotics would be appropriate for the treatment of epididymitis.C. Topical azole
creams are used to treat balanitis, which is candida infection of the glans penis.
D. Chemotherapy is appropriate for testicular cancer, which usually presents in young
male adults who complain of a sensation of heaviness or aching a nodule or testicular
enlargement, or testicular tenderness.
A 12-year-old male patient present for evaluation of a painful pimple on his eyelid. On
exam, you find a 3 mm fluctuant pustule on the margin his right eyelid with no exudate.
What is this likely to be?
, A. Chalazion
B. Molluscum contagiosum
C. Hordeolum
D. Blepharitis - CORRECT ANSWER: Correct Answer: C. Hordeolum
A hordeolum is also known as a stye. It is a painful infection of the meibomian gland, so
located at the margin of the eyelid. It is treated with warm compresses for 10 minutes
TID and erythromycin ointment may also be added.
Incorrect Answers:
A. A chalazion is a subcutaneous nodule that results from blockage of the meibomian
gland, but are generally not due to infection. May be associated with a hordeolum.
B. Molluscum contagiosum are small nodules with a central umbilication that may
appear on the face or eyelids. They are caused by a virus and should not be painful.
D. Blepharitis is inflammation of the eyelid margin.
Vital Concepts:
A hordeolum is also known as a stye. It is a painful infection of the meibomian gland, so
located at the margin of the eyelid. It is treated with warm compresses for 10 minutes
TID and erythromycin ointment may also be added.
A 14-year-old female basketball player presents with anterior knee pain that is
exacerbated by jumping. She denies any specific injury. There is no effusion, joint-line
tenderness, or instability. She has tenderness to palpation over the tibial tubercle. What
is the most likely diagnosis, and what is the appropriate management?
A. Meniscal tear and arthroscopic surgery
B. Osgood-Schlatter disease and rest, ice, and anti-inflammatories
C. Anterior cruciate ligament tear and physical therapy
D. Patellofemoral pain syndrome and realignment surgery - CORRECT ANSWER:
Correct Answer: B. Osgood-Schlatter disease and rest, ice, and anti-inflammatories
Osgood-Schlatter is the eponym used for anterior knee pain that is often found in
adolescents. As they grow, their bones lengthen faster than their tendons, which can
lead to apophysitis of the tibial tubercle. Management is rest from activity, stretching,
2026 Actual Exam 125 Questions with 100%
Verified Correct Answers Guaranteed A+ Verified
by Professor
43-year-old patient with past medical history of mild asthma in his childhood presents
for management of hypertension. He has heard that some antihypertensive medications
can worsen breathing in asthmatic patients. Which of the following medications would
be most likely to cause bronchospasm in a patient with asthma?
A. Metoprolol
B. Atenolol
C. Propranolol
D. Bisoprolol - CORRECT ANSWER: Correct Answer: C. Propranolol
Propranolol is the only beta-blocker listed with is non-selective. Beta-blockers can be
cardioselective, or non- selective. Cardioselectivity refers to the ability to affect
predominantly beta 1 receptors rather than beta 2 receptors. Beta 1 receptors are
located mainly in the heart and mediate the sympathetic nervous system's direct effects
on the heart. Beta 2 receptors are located predominantly in the peripheral vascular
system and other organs like the lungs. Although all beta-blockers affect beta receptors,
some affect subsets of receptors differently. This has significant consequences in terms
of side effects, as beta-blockers are known to cause extra-cardiac symptoms such as
worsened bronchospasms in asthmatics. Although beta-1 selective blockers are safer
than nonselective beta blockers, and would be preferred in patients with asthma, they
should still be used with caution in patients with asthma, particularly in those with
severe obstruction or markedly reduced pulmonary function at baseline.
Incorrect Answers:
A. B. and D. These are all cardioselective beta-blockers.
A 10-month-old girl with no prior medical history presents to the emergency room with
signs of bronchiolitis. The patient's parents report that she developed a cough 3 days
ago, and today she developed rhinorrhea, wheezing, and a fever of 100.4°F. Physical
,examination reveals a temperature of 100.5°F, and wheezing is evident on pulmonary
exam. Physical examination also reveals right tympanic membrane fullness, with loss of
light reflex and erythema. The patient keeps pulling on her ear. It is December, and this
is the 10th patient this month who has presented with the same symptoms. Which of the
following is the most appropriate therapy for this patient?
A. Amoxicillin with analgesics
B. Bronchodilators
C. Corticosteroids
D. Ribavirin - CORRECT ANSWER: Correct Answer: A. Amoxicillin with analgesics
The patient's age, lower respiratory tract symptoms, and the spike in cases seen during
this time of year indicate that the patient most likely has respiratory syncytial virus
(RSV). RSV is a viral infection that attacks the lower respiratory tract, causing
bronchiolitis or pneumonia. While RSV commonly affects young children, it can be seen
in adults. While uncomplicated RSV is treated with supportive therapy, the patient also
has evidence of otitis media. The 2013 AAP/AAFP guideline recommends either
immediate treatment or observation (with pain control) for children between 6 and 24
months with unilateral nonsevere AOM and for children ≥24 months with unilateral or
bilateral nonsevere AOM. Since this child has evidence of unilateral AOM, either
observation or treatment with antibiotics are appropriate. Individually randomized trials
that used stringent diagnostic criteria demonstrated that children under the age of two
benefits from antibiotic therapy, including those with nonsevere unilateral AOM.
Incorrect Answers:
B. Bronchodilators are not recommended for the routine treatment of RSV bronchiolitis.
While bronchodilators may provide modest short-term improvement, they do not
improve long-term outcomes and may have adverse effects. Bronchodilators also
increase the cost of care and should only be used if a single trial leads to a prompt
favorable response.
C. Corticosteroids are not recommended for the routine treatment of RSV bronchiolitis
in infants. However, corticosteroids may be helpful in older children and adults who
have RSV-associated bronchial reactivity, especially those who have a history of
asthma that may have been exacerbated by the recent RSV infection. Corticosteroids
can potentially decrease bronchial swelling and airway obstruction through their inh
,A 12-year-old boy complains of abrupt onset of scrotal pain upon awakening this
morning. He has had nausea and vomiting for the past hour. He is afebrile and his heart
rate is 100/minute. His scrotum is red and swollen and the right testicle is higher than
the left. When you stroke the inner thigh on the right, there is no movement of the
testicle. Which of the following is an indicated treatment for this condition?
A. Manual reduction
B. Antibiotics
C. Topical azole cream
D. Chemotherapy - CORRECT ANSWER: Correct Answer: A. Manual reduction
The patient, in this case, has a presentation consistent with testicular torsion. Patients
with testicular torsion are usually young men between the ages of 10 and 20. They will
complain of sudden onset of scrotal pain, usually in the middle of the night or upon
awakening. The scrotum will be red and swollen and the affected testicle is usually
positioned higher than the unaffected testicle, often closer to the body. The cremasteric
reflex refers to elevation of the testicle when the ipsilateral thigh is stroked. This reflex is
absent in testicular torsion. Testicular torsion is a urologic emergency. Torsion interrupts
the blood supply to the testicle and permanent damage ensues if not reduced within 6
hours. After 24 hours, the testicle will become gangrenous and must be surgically
removed. The nurse practitioner should call 911 and the patient should undergo Doppler
ultrasound in the ED. Manual detorsion can be accomplished in the ED by the "open
book" maneuver, but a surgical reduction is necessary if a manual reduction is
unsuccessful.
Incorrect Answers:
B. Antibiotics would be appropriate for the treatment of epididymitis.C. Topical azole
creams are used to treat balanitis, which is candida infection of the glans penis.
D. Chemotherapy is appropriate for testicular cancer, which usually presents in young
male adults who complain of a sensation of heaviness or aching a nodule or testicular
enlargement, or testicular tenderness.
A 12-year-old male patient present for evaluation of a painful pimple on his eyelid. On
exam, you find a 3 mm fluctuant pustule on the margin his right eyelid with no exudate.
What is this likely to be?
, A. Chalazion
B. Molluscum contagiosum
C. Hordeolum
D. Blepharitis - CORRECT ANSWER: Correct Answer: C. Hordeolum
A hordeolum is also known as a stye. It is a painful infection of the meibomian gland, so
located at the margin of the eyelid. It is treated with warm compresses for 10 minutes
TID and erythromycin ointment may also be added.
Incorrect Answers:
A. A chalazion is a subcutaneous nodule that results from blockage of the meibomian
gland, but are generally not due to infection. May be associated with a hordeolum.
B. Molluscum contagiosum are small nodules with a central umbilication that may
appear on the face or eyelids. They are caused by a virus and should not be painful.
D. Blepharitis is inflammation of the eyelid margin.
Vital Concepts:
A hordeolum is also known as a stye. It is a painful infection of the meibomian gland, so
located at the margin of the eyelid. It is treated with warm compresses for 10 minutes
TID and erythromycin ointment may also be added.
A 14-year-old female basketball player presents with anterior knee pain that is
exacerbated by jumping. She denies any specific injury. There is no effusion, joint-line
tenderness, or instability. She has tenderness to palpation over the tibial tubercle. What
is the most likely diagnosis, and what is the appropriate management?
A. Meniscal tear and arthroscopic surgery
B. Osgood-Schlatter disease and rest, ice, and anti-inflammatories
C. Anterior cruciate ligament tear and physical therapy
D. Patellofemoral pain syndrome and realignment surgery - CORRECT ANSWER:
Correct Answer: B. Osgood-Schlatter disease and rest, ice, and anti-inflammatories
Osgood-Schlatter is the eponym used for anterior knee pain that is often found in
adolescents. As they grow, their bones lengthen faster than their tendons, which can
lead to apophysitis of the tibial tubercle. Management is rest from activity, stretching,
