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A QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS APPROACH TO A+ IN HESI ADULT HEALTH PRACTICE EXAM

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A QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS APPROACH TO A+ IN HESI ADULT HEALTH PRACTICE EXAM. 1) A nurse is caring for a client with hyperparathyroidism and notes that the client's serum calcium level is 13 mg/dL. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer as prescribed to the client? 1. Calcium chloride 2. Calcium gluconate 3. Calcitonin (Miacalcin) 4. Large doses of vitamin D 3. Calcitonin (Miacalcin) Rationale: The normal serum calcium level is 8.6 to 10.0 mg/dL. This client is experiencing hypercalcemia. Calcium gluconate and calcium chloride are medications used for the treatment of tetany, which occurs as a result of acute hypocalcemia. In hypercalcemia, large doses of vitamin D need to be avoided. Calcitonin, a thyroid hormone, decreases the plasma calcium level by inhibiting bone resorption and lowering the serum calcium concentration. 2.) Oral iron supplements are prescribed for a 6-year-old child with iron deficiency anemia. The nurse instructs the mother to administer the iron with which best food item? 1. Milk 2. Water 3. Apple juice 4. Orange juice 4. Orange juice Rationale: Vitamin C increases the absorption of iron by the body. The mother should be instructed to administer the medication with a citrus fruit or a juice that is high in vitamin C. Milk may affect absorption of the iron. Water will not assist in absorption. Orange juice contains a greater amount of vitamin C than apple juice. 3.) Salicylic acid is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of psoriasis. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following would indicate the presence of systemic toxicity from this medication? 1. Tinnitus 2. Diarrhea 3. Constipation 4. Decreased respirations 1. Tinnitus Rationale: Salicylic acid is absorbed readily through the skin, and systemic toxicity (salicylism) can result. Symptoms include tinnitus, dizziness, hyperpnea, and psychological disturbances. Constipation and diarrhea are not associated with salicylism. 4.) The camp nurse asks the children preparing to swim in the lake if they have applied sunscreen. The nurse reminds the children that chemical sunscreens are most effective when applied: 1. Immediately before swimming 2. 15 minutes before exposure to the sun 3. Immediately before exposure to the sun 4. At least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun 4. At least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun Rationale: Sunscreens are most effective when applied at least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun so that they can penetrate the skin. All sunscreens should be reapplied after swimming or sweating. 5.) Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) is prescribed for the client with a burn injury. When applying the medication, the client complains of local discomfort and burning. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action? 1. Notifying the registered nurse 2. Discontinuing the medication 3. Informing the client that this is normal 4. Applying a thinner film than prescribed to the burn site 3. Informing the client that this is normal Rationale: Mafenide acetate is bacteriostatic for gram-negative and gram-positive organisms and is used to treat burns to reduce bacteria present in avascular tissues. The client should be informed that the medication will cause local discomfort and burning and that this is a normal reaction; therefore options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect 6.) The burn client is receiving treatments of topical mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) to the site of injury. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following indicates that a systemic effect has occurred? 1.Hyperventilation 2.Elevated blood pressure 3.Local pain at the burn site 4.Local rash at the burn site 1.Hyperventilation Rationale: Mafenide acetate is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor and can suppress renal excretion of acid, thereby causing acidosis. Clients receiving this treatment should be monitored for signs of an acid-base imbalance (hyperventilation). If this occurs, the medication should be discontinued for 1 to 2 days. Options 3 and 4 describe local rather than systemic effects. An elevated blood pressure may be expected from the pain that occurs with a burn injury. 7.) Isotretinoin is prescribed for a client with severe acne. Before the administration of this medication, the nurse anticipates that which laboratory test will be prescribed? 1. Platelet count 2. Triglyceride level 3. Complete blood count 4. White blood cell count 2. Triglyceride level Rationale: Isotretinoin can elevate triglyceride levels. Blood triglyceride levels should be measured before treatment and periodically thereafter until the effect on the triglycerides has been evaluated. Options 1, 3, and 4 do not need to be monitored specifically during this treatment. 8.) A client with severe acne is seen in the clinic and the health care provider (HCP) prescribes isotretinoin. The nurse reviews the client's medication record and would contact the (HCP) if the client is taking which medication? 1. Vitamin A 2. Digoxin (Lanoxin) 3. Furosemide (Lasix) 4. Phenytoin (Dilantin) 1. Vitamin A Rationale: Isotretinoin is a metabolite of vitamin A and can produce generalized intensification of isotretinoin toxicity. Because of the potential for increased toxicity, vitamin A supplements should be discontinued before isotretinoin therapy. Options 2, 3, and 4 are not contraindicated with the use of isotretinoin. 9.) The nurse is applying a topical corticosteroid to a client with eczema. The nurse would monitor for the potential for increased systemic absorption of the medication if the medication were being applied to which of the following body areas? 1. Back 2. Axilla 3. Soles of the feet 4. Palms of the hands 2. Axilla Rationale: Topical corticosteroids can be absorbed into the systemic circulation. Absorption is higher from regions where the skin is especially permeable (scalp, axilla, face, eyelids, neck, perineum, genitalia), and lower from regions in which permeability is poor (back, palms, soles).

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A QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS APPROACH TO A+ IN HESI ADULT
HEALTH PRACTICE EXAM.


The healthcare provider prescribes aluminum and magnesium hydroxide
(Maalox), 1 tablet PO PRN, for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is
complaining of indigestion. What intervention should the nurse implement?


a. Administer 30 minutes before eating.
b. Evaluate the effectiveness 1 hour after administration.
c. Instruct the client to swallow the tablet whole.
d. Question the healthcare provider's prescription.
d. Question the healthcare provider's prescription.


Rationale
Magnesium agents are not usually used for clients with CKD due to the risk of
hypermagnesemia, so this prescription should be questioned by the nurse.
In assessing a client diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism, the nurse
expects the laboratory test results to indicate a decreased serum level of which
substance?


Sodium.
Antidiuretic hormone.
Potassium.
Glucose.
Potassium


Rationale


Clients with primary hyperaldosteronism exhibit a profound decline in the serum levels
of potassium (hypokalemia). Hypertension, along with the hypokalemia are the most

, prominent and universal signs for this condition. If both of these findings are present,
there is 50% likelihood the client to be diagnosed with hyperaldosteronism.
A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has been experiencing
severe reflux during sleep. Which recommendation by the nurse is most effective
to assist the client?


Losing weight.
Decreasing caffeine intake.
Avoiding large meals.
Raising the head of the bed on blocks.
Raising the head of the bed on blocks.


Rationale
Raising the head of the bed on blocks (reverse Trendelenburg position) to reduce reflux
and subsequent aspiration is the most non-pharmacological effective recommendation
for a client experiencing severe gastroesophageal reflux during sleep.
A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyphagia. Which outcome
statement is the priority for this client?
Fluid and electrolyte balance.
Prevention of water toxicity.
Reduced glucose in the urine.
Adequate cellular nourishment.
Adequate cellular nourishment.


Rationale


Diabetes mellitus Type 1 is characterized by hyperglycemia that precipitates glucosuria
and polyuria (frequent urination), polydipsia (excessive thirst), and polyphagia
(excessive hunger). Polyphagia is a consequence of cellular malnourishment when
insulin deficiency prevents utilization of glucose into the cell for energy, so the outcome

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