Solutions
A patient reports a 2-day history of a hot, swollen, first metatarsophalangeal
joint. This complaint is MOST common in:
1. osteoarthritis.
2. polymyositis.
3. gout.
4. rheumatoid arthritis. Right Ans - 3
1. Osteoarthritis is typically characterized by dull, achy pain in weight-bearing
joints (e.g., hips, knees, etc.) (pp. 1304-1306).
2. Polymyositis presents as symmetric proximal muscle weakness with
malaise and weight loss. There is no joint involvement. (p. 1247)
3. Gout's typical presentation is severe joint pain, occurring at night, typically
in the first metatarsophalangeal joint. Signs and symptoms also include
erythema, warmth, and extreme tenderness and hypersensitivity of the
affected joint. (p. 1345)
4. Rheumatoid arthritis presents with symmetrical joint inflammation and
pain with subluxations (pp. 1319-1322).
Pathology Book, Goodman
A patient who sustained an avulsion of the right C5 and C6 spinal nerve roots
will show functional loss of right:
1. distal thumb flexion.
2. ulnar wrist deviation.
3. elbow extension.
4. shoulder abduction. Right Ans - 4
,1. The C8-T1 nerve roots form the median nerve (anterior interosseus),
supplying the flexor pollicis longus muscle. A patient who has an avulsion of
the C5 and C6 spinal nerve roots will be able to perform distal thumb (1st
digit) flexion. (Dutton, p. 83; O'Sullivan, p. 154)
2. The C7-C8 nerve roots form the ulnar nerve and radial nerve (posterior
interosseus), supplying the flexor and extensor carpi ulnaris. Therefore, a
patient who has an avulsion of the C5 and C6 spinal nerve roots will be able to
perform wrist ulnar deviation. (Dutton, pp. 83, 86; O'Sullivan, p. 154)
3. The C5-C8 and T1 nerve roots form the radial nerve, supplying the triceps
brachii. Avulsion of the C5 and C6 nerve roots will result in weakness but not
functional loss of elbow extension. (Dutton, pp. 81-82; O'Sullivan, p. 154)
4. The C5-C6 nerve roots form the axillary nerve, supplying the deltoid and
teres minor. Avulsion of these nerve roots will result in decreased right
shoulder abduction. (Dutton, p. 80; O'Sullivan, p. 154)
After a kidney transplant, a patient develops a Stage 3 pressure injury over the
sacrum and is referred to physical therapy for wound care. Which of the
following is the MOST appropriate agent to use initially on this wound?
1. Povidone-iodine solution
2. Sterile normal saline
3. Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) cream
4. Zinc oxide cream Right Ans - 2
1. Povidone-iodine is usually used as a skin preparation to prevent surgical
site infection. It can be used in acute traumatic wounds. A Stage 3 pressure
injury is an example of a chronic wound. (Sussman, p. 518)
2. Sterile normal saline is the appropriate initial agent used to clean a wound
(Sussman, p. 518).
3. Use of silver sulfadiazine may be indicated if infection is present. However,
it is not indicated in the initial treatment. (Sussman, p. 513)
4. Zinc oxide is used in dental fillings and in local surface treatment for various
skin disorders but not for chronic pressure injuries (Mosby's, p. 1913).
Mosby Dictionary of Medicine
,When providing patient education in cardiac rehabilitation, which of the
following signs and symptoms of exertional intolerance should the physical
therapist emphasize?
1. Anginal pain, insomnia, sudden weight gain, leg stiffness
2. Persistent dyspnea, dizziness, anginal pain, sudden weight gain
3. Persistent dyspnea, anginal pain, insomnia, weight loss
4. Anginal pain, confusion, leg numbness, weight loss Right Ans - 2
1. Leg stiffness is not a sign/symptom associated with exercise intolerance
among patients undergoing cardiac rehabilitation.
2. The signs and symptoms listed in this option are associated with exercise
intolerance among patients undergoing cardiac rehabilitation.
3. Weight loss is not a sign associated with exercise intolerance among
patients undergoing cardiac rehabilitation. However, angina and dyspnea are
important signs of exercise intolerance.
4. Leg numbness, confusion, and weight loss are not associated with exercise
intolerance. However, angina is important to note in the patient who has
cardiac dysfunction.
O'sullivan
A patient with no history of trauma has nonradiating low back pain. Lumbar
flexion does not reverse the lordosis and is pain-free; lumbar extension
increases the symptom. Palpation reveals a step-off in the lower lumbar
region. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient would be:
1. abdominal strengthening.
2. sustained prone positioning on elbows.
3. exaggerated lumbar lordosis in sitting.
4. grade III posteroanterior glide to L5. Right Ans - 1
, 1. This patient's signs and symptoms are consistent with spondylolisthesis.
Abdominal muscle strengthening and stabilization are key to conservative
management.
2. Extension activities are not indicated for a patient with spondylolisthesis.
3. Extension activities are not indicated for a patient with spondylolisthesis.
4. Extension activities are not indicated for a patient with spondylolisthesis.
A patient positioned in prone has difficulty initiating hip extension with the
knee bent. Which of the following muscles will MOST likely need
strengthening?
1. Hamstrings
2. Gluteus maximus
3. Lumbar erector spinae
4. Gluteus medius Right Ans - 2
1. Hamstrings are primarily knee flexors. They can be secondary hip extensors
but would be tested with the knee extended, not flexed. (p. 242)
2. The gluteus maximus is the primary hip extensor muscle tested in this
manner (p. 216).
3. Lumbar erector spinae extend the trunk on the legs. They do not attach on
the femur and have no impact on hip extension. (pp. 43-44)
4. Gluteus medius weakness would be assessed by testing hip abduction in
sidelying position (p. 223).
MMT book
A patient presents with moderate pain in the elbow after a fall. The
radiograph is negative for a fracture. Which of the following mobilizations is
MOST appropriate for decreasing the pain?
1. Small-amplitude oscillations before the onset of tissue resistance
2. Small-amplitude oscillations into tissue resistance
3. Large-amplitude oscillations into tissue resistance