American Board of Obstetrics and Gynecology Practice Exam
Question 1: In preconception counseling, which risk factor is most critical to address in a
woman with a history of diabetes?
A) Genetic predisposition
B) Glycemic control
C) Environmental exposures
D) Dietary preferences
Answer: B
Explanation: Good glycemic control before conception significantly reduces the risk of
congenital malformations and other complications in diabetic pregnancies.
Question 2: Which screening test is routinely recommended in the first trimester to assess
chromosomal abnormalities?
A) Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein
B) First-trimester ultrasound combined with nuchal translucency measurement
C) Amniocentesis
D) Chorionic villus sampling
Answer: B
Explanation: First-trimester ultrasound with nuchal translucency measurement is widely used for
early screening of chromosomal anomalies.
Question 3: What is the most appropriate management for a healthy woman with an
uncomplicated pregnancy at 28 weeks?
A) Immediate induction of labor
B) Routine prenatal care and monitoring
C) Elective cesarean delivery
D) Hospitalization for continuous fetal monitoring
Answer: B
Explanation: Uncomplicated pregnancies are managed with routine prenatal care and scheduled
evaluations.
Question 4: Which condition is most commonly associated with hypertension and
proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation?
A) Gestational diabetes
B) Preeclampsia
C) Placenta previa
D) Hyperemesis gravidarum
Answer: B
Explanation: Preeclampsia is defined by new-onset hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks
and requires close monitoring.
Question 5: In the management of labor, which of the following is considered the most
effective non-pharmacologic method for pain relief?
,A) Epidural analgesia
B) Massage and continuous support
C) Narcotic analgesia
D) General anesthesia
Answer: B
Explanation: Non-pharmacologic techniques, such as massage and continuous labor support, can
significantly reduce pain perception and improve maternal satisfaction.
Question 6: Following vaginal delivery, what is the key focus of immediate postpartum
care?
A) Initiation of breastfeeding only
B) Assessment of uterine involution and hemorrhage
C) Scheduling a cesarean section
D) Immediate discharge from hospital
Answer: B
Explanation: Postpartum care centers on monitoring uterine involution and controlling
hemorrhage to ensure maternal stability.
Question 7: Which fetal assessment technique is most commonly used to evaluate fetal
heart rate patterns during labor?
A) Magnetic resonance imaging
B) Cardiotocography (CTG)
C) Doppler velocimetry
D) Fetal echocardiography
Answer: B
Explanation: Cardiotocography is the standard method for monitoring fetal heart rate patterns
and uterine contractions during labor.
Question 8: What is the primary concern in managing a twin pregnancy compared to a
singleton?
A) Increased risk of preterm labor
B) Reduced risk of fetal growth restriction
C) Lower maternal blood pressure
D) Decreased need for prenatal visits
Answer: A
Explanation: Twin pregnancies carry a higher risk of preterm labor and require more intensive
monitoring.
Question 9: Which of the following infections falls under the TORCH category and poses a
risk to the fetus?
A) Varicella zoster
B) Toxoplasmosis
C) Epstein-Barr virus
D) Influenza virus
Answer: B
,Explanation: Toxoplasmosis is part of the TORCH complex that includes infections with
teratogenic potential in pregnancy.
Question 10: In genetic counseling, what is the main purpose of offering diagnostic tests
such as amniocentesis?
A) To determine fetal sex
B) To identify chromosomal abnormalities
C) To select the delivery method
D) To assess maternal blood type
Answer: B
Explanation: Diagnostic tests like amniocentesis are primarily used to detect chromosomal
anomalies and genetic disorders.
Question 11: Which factor is most important in preconception counseling for a woman
with a family history of neural tube defects?
A) Avoiding strenuous exercise
B) Folic acid supplementation
C) Increased protein intake
D) Regular physical therapy
Answer: B
Explanation: Folic acid supplementation is critical in reducing the risk of neural tube defects in
the offspring.
Question 12: When assessing prenatal risk, what is the significance of an abnormal
quadruple screen?
A) It confirms fetal genetic integrity
B) It indicates the need for further diagnostic evaluation
C) It is not significant if the ultrasound is normal
D) It only predicts maternal complications
Answer: B
Explanation: An abnormal quadruple screen suggests possible chromosomal or structural
abnormalities, warranting additional diagnostic tests.
Question 13: Which laboratory test is essential during routine prenatal visits to screen for
gestational diabetes?
A) Complete blood count
B) Oral glucose tolerance test
C) Thyroid function tests
D) Liver function panel
Answer: B
Explanation: The oral glucose tolerance test is the standard for diagnosing gestational diabetes
during pregnancy.
Question 14: What is the most appropriate management strategy for mild gestational
hypertension without proteinuria?
A) Immediate delivery
, B) Bed rest and observation
C) Aggressive antihypertensive therapy
D) No intervention is necessary
Answer: B
Explanation: In cases of mild gestational hypertension, careful observation and bed rest are
typically recommended while monitoring maternal and fetal status.
Question 15: In a normal labor progression, which sign is most indicative of active labor?
A) Mild contractions with minimal cervical change
B) Regular, painful contractions with cervical dilation
C) Fetal movements increasing
D) Maternal heart rate rising
Answer: B
Explanation: Active labor is characterized by regular, painful contractions leading to progressive
cervical dilation.
Question 16: Which method is most effective for reducing the risk of postpartum
hemorrhage?
A) Prophylactic antibiotics
B) Uterotonic agents immediately after delivery
C) Routine episiotomy
D) Delaying cord clamping
Answer: B
Explanation: Administration of uterotonic agents immediately after delivery is the standard
intervention to prevent postpartum hemorrhage.
Question 17: What is the primary benefit of early ultrasonography in pregnancy?
A) Predicting maternal mood changes
B) Confirming gestational age and viability
C) Preventing gestational diabetes
D) Eliminating the need for further prenatal care
Answer: B
Explanation: Early ultrasonography is essential for confirming gestational age, fetal viability,
and detecting multiple gestations or anomalies.
Question 18: In the setting of multiple gestation, what is a common complication that
requires close monitoring?
A) Hyperthyroidism
B) Intrauterine growth restriction
C) Ovarian hyperstimulation
D) Delayed ovulation
Answer: B
Explanation: In multiple gestations, intrauterine growth restriction is a concern due to the shared
resources between fetuses.
Question 1: In preconception counseling, which risk factor is most critical to address in a
woman with a history of diabetes?
A) Genetic predisposition
B) Glycemic control
C) Environmental exposures
D) Dietary preferences
Answer: B
Explanation: Good glycemic control before conception significantly reduces the risk of
congenital malformations and other complications in diabetic pregnancies.
Question 2: Which screening test is routinely recommended in the first trimester to assess
chromosomal abnormalities?
A) Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein
B) First-trimester ultrasound combined with nuchal translucency measurement
C) Amniocentesis
D) Chorionic villus sampling
Answer: B
Explanation: First-trimester ultrasound with nuchal translucency measurement is widely used for
early screening of chromosomal anomalies.
Question 3: What is the most appropriate management for a healthy woman with an
uncomplicated pregnancy at 28 weeks?
A) Immediate induction of labor
B) Routine prenatal care and monitoring
C) Elective cesarean delivery
D) Hospitalization for continuous fetal monitoring
Answer: B
Explanation: Uncomplicated pregnancies are managed with routine prenatal care and scheduled
evaluations.
Question 4: Which condition is most commonly associated with hypertension and
proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation?
A) Gestational diabetes
B) Preeclampsia
C) Placenta previa
D) Hyperemesis gravidarum
Answer: B
Explanation: Preeclampsia is defined by new-onset hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks
and requires close monitoring.
Question 5: In the management of labor, which of the following is considered the most
effective non-pharmacologic method for pain relief?
,A) Epidural analgesia
B) Massage and continuous support
C) Narcotic analgesia
D) General anesthesia
Answer: B
Explanation: Non-pharmacologic techniques, such as massage and continuous labor support, can
significantly reduce pain perception and improve maternal satisfaction.
Question 6: Following vaginal delivery, what is the key focus of immediate postpartum
care?
A) Initiation of breastfeeding only
B) Assessment of uterine involution and hemorrhage
C) Scheduling a cesarean section
D) Immediate discharge from hospital
Answer: B
Explanation: Postpartum care centers on monitoring uterine involution and controlling
hemorrhage to ensure maternal stability.
Question 7: Which fetal assessment technique is most commonly used to evaluate fetal
heart rate patterns during labor?
A) Magnetic resonance imaging
B) Cardiotocography (CTG)
C) Doppler velocimetry
D) Fetal echocardiography
Answer: B
Explanation: Cardiotocography is the standard method for monitoring fetal heart rate patterns
and uterine contractions during labor.
Question 8: What is the primary concern in managing a twin pregnancy compared to a
singleton?
A) Increased risk of preterm labor
B) Reduced risk of fetal growth restriction
C) Lower maternal blood pressure
D) Decreased need for prenatal visits
Answer: A
Explanation: Twin pregnancies carry a higher risk of preterm labor and require more intensive
monitoring.
Question 9: Which of the following infections falls under the TORCH category and poses a
risk to the fetus?
A) Varicella zoster
B) Toxoplasmosis
C) Epstein-Barr virus
D) Influenza virus
Answer: B
,Explanation: Toxoplasmosis is part of the TORCH complex that includes infections with
teratogenic potential in pregnancy.
Question 10: In genetic counseling, what is the main purpose of offering diagnostic tests
such as amniocentesis?
A) To determine fetal sex
B) To identify chromosomal abnormalities
C) To select the delivery method
D) To assess maternal blood type
Answer: B
Explanation: Diagnostic tests like amniocentesis are primarily used to detect chromosomal
anomalies and genetic disorders.
Question 11: Which factor is most important in preconception counseling for a woman
with a family history of neural tube defects?
A) Avoiding strenuous exercise
B) Folic acid supplementation
C) Increased protein intake
D) Regular physical therapy
Answer: B
Explanation: Folic acid supplementation is critical in reducing the risk of neural tube defects in
the offspring.
Question 12: When assessing prenatal risk, what is the significance of an abnormal
quadruple screen?
A) It confirms fetal genetic integrity
B) It indicates the need for further diagnostic evaluation
C) It is not significant if the ultrasound is normal
D) It only predicts maternal complications
Answer: B
Explanation: An abnormal quadruple screen suggests possible chromosomal or structural
abnormalities, warranting additional diagnostic tests.
Question 13: Which laboratory test is essential during routine prenatal visits to screen for
gestational diabetes?
A) Complete blood count
B) Oral glucose tolerance test
C) Thyroid function tests
D) Liver function panel
Answer: B
Explanation: The oral glucose tolerance test is the standard for diagnosing gestational diabetes
during pregnancy.
Question 14: What is the most appropriate management strategy for mild gestational
hypertension without proteinuria?
A) Immediate delivery
, B) Bed rest and observation
C) Aggressive antihypertensive therapy
D) No intervention is necessary
Answer: B
Explanation: In cases of mild gestational hypertension, careful observation and bed rest are
typically recommended while monitoring maternal and fetal status.
Question 15: In a normal labor progression, which sign is most indicative of active labor?
A) Mild contractions with minimal cervical change
B) Regular, painful contractions with cervical dilation
C) Fetal movements increasing
D) Maternal heart rate rising
Answer: B
Explanation: Active labor is characterized by regular, painful contractions leading to progressive
cervical dilation.
Question 16: Which method is most effective for reducing the risk of postpartum
hemorrhage?
A) Prophylactic antibiotics
B) Uterotonic agents immediately after delivery
C) Routine episiotomy
D) Delaying cord clamping
Answer: B
Explanation: Administration of uterotonic agents immediately after delivery is the standard
intervention to prevent postpartum hemorrhage.
Question 17: What is the primary benefit of early ultrasonography in pregnancy?
A) Predicting maternal mood changes
B) Confirming gestational age and viability
C) Preventing gestational diabetes
D) Eliminating the need for further prenatal care
Answer: B
Explanation: Early ultrasonography is essential for confirming gestational age, fetal viability,
and detecting multiple gestations or anomalies.
Question 18: In the setting of multiple gestation, what is a common complication that
requires close monitoring?
A) Hyperthyroidism
B) Intrauterine growth restriction
C) Ovarian hyperstimulation
D) Delayed ovulation
Answer: B
Explanation: In multiple gestations, intrauterine growth restriction is a concern due to the shared
resources between fetuses.
