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NCLEX RN PRACTICE TEST #4 EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS VERIFIED LATEST UPDATE

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NCLEX RN PRACTICE TEST #4 EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS VERIFIED LATEST UPDATE Terms in this set (20) A child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Wilm's tumor, stage II. Which of the following statements most accurately describes this stage? A. The tumor is less than 3 cm. in size and requires no chemotherapy. B. The tumor did not extend beyond the kidney and was completely resected. C. The tumor extended beyond the kidney but was completely resected. D. The tumor has spread into the abdominal cavity and cannot be resected. C The staging of Wilm's tumor is confirmed at surgery as follows: Stage I, the tumor is limited to the kidney and completely resected; stage II, the tumor extends beyond the kidney but is completely resected; stage III, residual nonhematogenous tumor is confined to the abdomen; stage IV, hematogenous metastasis has occurred with spread beyond the abdomen; and stage V, bilateral renal involvement is present at diagnosis. A teen patient is admitted to the hospital by his physician who suspects a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the following findings is consistent with this diagnosis? Note: More than one answer may be correct. A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040. B. Urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours. C. Brown ("tea-colored") urine. D. Generalized edema. A, B, and C Acute glomerulonephritis is characterized by high urine specific gravity related to oliguria as well as dark "tea colored" urine caused by large amounts of red blood cells. There is periorbital edema, but generalized edema is seen in nephrotic syndrome, not acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the following conditions most commonly causes acute glomerulonephritis? A. A congenital condition leading to renal dysfunction. B. Prior infection with group A Streptococcus within the past 10-14 days. C. Viral infection of the glomeruli. D. Nephrotic syndrome. B Acute glomerulonephritis is most commonly caused by the immune response to a prior upper respiratory infection with group A Streptococcus. Glomerular inflammation occurs about 10-14 days after the infection, resulting in scant, dark urine and retention of body fluid. Periorbital edema and hypertension are common signs at diagnosis. An infant with hydrocele is seen in the clinic for a follow-up visit at 1 month of age. The scrotum is smaller than it was at birth, but fluid is still visible on illumination. Which of the following actions is the physician likely to recommend? A. Massaging the groin area twice a day until the fluid is gone. B. Referral to a surgeon for repair. C. No treatment is necessary; the fluid is reabsorbing normally. D. Keeping the infant in a flat, supine position until the fluid is gone. C A hydrocele is a collection of fluid in the scrotum that results from a patent tunica vaginalis. Illumination of the scrotum with a pocket light demonstrates the clear fluid. In most cases the fluid reabsorbs within the first few months of life and no treatment is necessary. Massaging the area or placing the infant in a supine position would have no effect. Surgery is not indicated. A nurse is caring for a patient with peripheral vascular disease (PVD). The patient complains of burning and tingling of the hands and feet and cannot tolerate touch of any kind. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these symptoms? A. Inadequate tissue perfusion leading to nerve damage. B. Fluid overload leading to compression of nerve tissue. C. Sensation distortion due to psychiatric disturbance. D. Inflammation of the skin on the hands and feet. A Patients with peripheral vascular disease often sustain nerve damage as a result of inadequate tissue perfusion. Fluid overload is not characteristic of PVD. There is nothing to indicate psychiatric disturbance in the patient. Skin changes in PVD are secondary to decreased tissue perfusion rather than primary inflammation. A patient in the cardiac unit is concerned about the risk factors associated with atherosclerosis. Which of the following are hereditary risk factors for developing atherosclerosis? A. Family history of heart disease. B. Overweight. C. Smoking. D. Age. A Family history of heart disease is an inherited risk factor that is not subject to life style change. Having a first degree relative with heart disease has been shown to significantly increase risk. Overweight and smoking are risk factors that are subject to life style change and can reduce risk significantly. Advancing age increases risk of atherosclerosis but is not a hereditary factor.

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3/21/25, 2:46 NCLEX RN Practice Test #4 Flashcards |
PM




NCLEX RN PRACTICE TEST #4 EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS VERIFIED LATEST UPDATE



Terms in this set (20)




A child is admitted to the hospital with a C

diagnosis of Wilm's tumor, stage II. Which

of the following statements most
The staging of Wilm's tumor is confirmed at surgery as follows: Stage I, the tumor is
accurately describes this stage?
limited to the kidney and completely resected; stage II, the tumor extends beyond

the kidney but is completely resected; stage III, residual nonhematogenous tumor is

A. The tumor is less than 3 cm. in size and confined to the abdomen; stage IV, hematogenous metastasis has occurred with

requires no chemotherapy. spread beyond the abdomen; and stage V, bilateral renal involvement is present at

B. The tumor did not extend diagnosis.

beyond the kidney and was

completely resected.

C. The tumor extended beyond the kidney

but was completely resected.

D.The tumor has spread into the abdominal

cavity and cannot be resected.




A teen patient is admitted to the hospital A, B, and C

by his physician who suspects a diagnosis

of acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the
Acute glomerulonephritis is characterized by high urine specific gravity related to
following findings is consistent with this
oliguria as well as dark "tea colored" urine caused by large amounts of red blood
diagnosis? Note: More than one answer
cells. There is periorbital edema, but generalized edema is seen in nephrotic
may be correct.
syndrome, not acute glomerulonephritis.



A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.

B.Urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours.



1/
8

, 3/21/25, 2:46 NCLEX RN Practice Test #4 Flashcards |
PM
C. Brown ("tea-colored") urine.

D.Generalized edema.

Which of the following conditions most B

commonly causes acute

glomerulonephritis?
Acute glomerulonephritis is most commonly caused by the immune response to a

prior upper respiratory infection with group A Streptococcus. Glomerular

A. A congenital condition leading to inflammation occurs about 10-14 days after the infection, resulting in scant, dark urine

renal dysfunction. and retention of body fluid. Periorbital edema and hypertension are common signs

B.Prior infection with group A at diagnosis.

Streptococcus within the past 10-14 days.

C. Viral infection of the glomeruli.

D.Nephrotic syndrome.

An infant with hydrocele is seen in the C

clinic for a follow-up visit at 1 month of age.

The scrotum is smaller than it was at birth, A hydrocele is a collection of fluid in the scrotum that results from a patent
but fluid is still visible on illumination. Which tunica vaginalis. Illumination of the scrotum with a pocket light demonstrates the
of the following actions is the physician clear fluid. In most cases the fluid reabsorbs within the first few months of life and
likely to recommend? no treatment is necessary. Massaging the area or placing the infant in a supine

position would

A. Massaging the groin area twice a have no effect. Surgery is not indicated.

day until the fluid is gone.

B.Referral to a surgeon for repair.

C. No treatment is necessary; the fluid is

reabsorbing normally.

D.Keeping the infant in a flat, supine

position until the fluid is gone.

A nurse is caring for a patient with A

peripheral vascular disease (PVD). The

patient complains of burning and tingling Patients with peripheral vascular disease often sustain nerve damage as a result of
of the hands and feet and cannot tolerate inadequate tissue perfusion. Fluid overload is not characteristic of PVD. There is
touch of any kind. Which of the following is nothing to indicate psychiatric disturbance in the patient. Skin changes in PVD are
the most likely explanation for these secondary to decreased tissue perfusion rather than primary inflammation.
symptoms?




A. Inadequate tissue perfusion leading to

nerve damage.

B.Fluid overload leading to
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