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PEDIATRICS EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A++

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PEDIATRICS EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A++ Terms in this set (42) The neurologic assessment of a client who had a craniotomy includes the Glasgow Coma Scale. What does the nurse evaluate to assess the client's score on the Glasgow Coma Scale? Select all that apply. Degree of purposeful movement by the client, Appropriateness of the client's verbal responses, Stimulus necessary to cause the client's eyes to open Rationale: The scale measures best motor response. The scale measures best verbal response. The scale measures eye opening response. Although the ability of the client's pupils to react to light is part of a neurologic assessment, it is not part of the Glasgow Coma Scale. Although the symmetry of muscle strength of the client's extremities is important to assess, it is not part of the Glasgow Coma Scale. A client is admitted with post traumatic brain injury and multiple fractures. The client's eyes remain closed, and there is no evidence of verbalization or movement when the nurse changes the client's position. What score on the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) should the nurse document? Record your answer using a whole number. Answer: 3 Rationale: The score on the GCS ranges from 3 to 15. The client's lack of response earns the minimum of one point in each of the categories: eye opening response, best verbal response, and best motor response. The nurse uses the Glasgow Coma Scale to assess a client with a head injury. The Glasgow Coma Scale score that indicates the client is in a coma is a score of: Answer: 6 Rationale: The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to assess the extent of neurological damage; it consists of three assessments: eye opening, response to auditory stimuli, and motor response. Consciousness exists on a continuum from full consciousness to coma. A score can be from 3 to 15; the lower the score the more indicative of coma. To achieve the ratings of 9, 12, or 15 the client must be exhibiting some meaningful responses. A nurse is caring for a client with a fracture of the head of the femur. The health care provider places the client in Buck's extension. What explanation does the nurse give the client for why the traction is being used? Reduces muscle spasms Rationale: Buck's extension is used to reduce the fracture, align the bone, and temporarily reduce muscle spasm. Edema occurs because of tissue trauma and will not be prevented by Buck's extension. A fractured head of the femur is repaired via internal fixation; a cast is unnecessary. Damage already has occurred at the time of trauma and is not prevented by Buck's extension. Which common initial clinical effects should the nurse expect a client with multiple sclerosis to exhibit? Select all that apply. Nystagmus, Scanning speech, Intention tremors Rationale: Involuntary, rhythmic movements of the eyes (nystagmus) and other visual disturbances, such as diplopia and blurred vision, are common initial symptoms of optic nerve lesions. The most common initial signs of multiple sclerosis are scanning speech, intention tremors, and nystagmus; this group of signs is known as Charcot's triad. These adaptations are associated with disseminated demyelination of nerve fibers of the brain and spinal cord. Although this is a neuromuscular disorder, headaches are not a common symptom. Pressure ulcers may occur late, not early, in the progression of the illness because of immobility, and these pressure ulcers may become infected. A client is cautioned to avoid vitamin D toxicity while increasing protein intake. Which nutrient selected by the client indicates to the nurse that the dietary teaching is understood? Tofu Tofu Rationale: Tofu products increase protein without increasing vitamin D because, unlike milk products, tofu does not contain vitamin D. Eggnog contains milk and should be avoided. Cottage cheese, a milk product, contains vitamin D, which should be avoided. Powdered whole milk contains vitamin D and should be avoided. What is important nursing care for clients with leukemia on chemotherapeutic protocols? Having them avoid contact with infected persons Rationale: Chemotherapy and acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) cause immunosuppression (low white blood cells), thus increasing the risk for infection. The client should maintain physical activity that can be tolerated. Although vital signs must be checked to assess for changes in pulse or blood pressure, unless there is clinical evidence of bleeding, it is not necessary to obtain vital signs every two hours. Children need stimulation that is appropriate for their developmental level except when acutely ill. A health care provider prescribes 250 mg of an antibiotic intravenous piggyback (IVPB). A vial containing 1 gram of the powdered form of the medication must be reconstituted with 2.8 mL of diluent to form a volume of 3 mL. How many mL of the solution should the nurse administer? Record your answer using one decimal place including leading zero if applicable. __mL 0.8 A client is scheduled for a lumbar puncture. What nursing care should be implemented after the procedure? Maintaining the client in the supine position for several hours. Rationale: Staying flat may help to prevent spinal fluid leakage and postprocedure headache; this is recommended, even though some people develop a headache despite this precaution. Encouraging the client to ambulate every hour for at least 6 hours may predispose to spinal fluid leakage; the client should be kept flat for 6 to 12 hours. The Trendelenburg position may increase intracranial pressure and is not appropriate. Placing the client in the high-Fowler position immediately after the procedure may predispose to spinal fluid leakage; the client should be kept flat for 6 to 12 hours.

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3/23/25, 8:17 Pediatrics Flashcards |
AM

PEDIATRICS EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A++
Terms in this set (42)


Degree of purposeful movement by the client, Appropriateness of the client's verbal
The neurologic assessment of a client who responses, Stimulus necessary to cause the client's eyes to open
had a craniotomy includes the Glasgow Rationale: The scale measures best motor response. The scale measures best verbal
Coma Scale. What does the nurse evaluate response. The scale measures eye opening response. Although the ability of the
to assess the client's score on the Glasgow client's pupils to react to light is part of a neurologic assessment, it is not part of the
Coma Scale? Select all that apply. Glasgow Coma Scale. Although the symmetry of muscle strength of the client's
extremities is important to assess, it is not part of the Glasgow Coma Scale.

A client is admitted with post Answer: 3
traumatic brain injury and multiple Rationale:
fractures. The The score on the GCS ranges from 3 to 15. The client's lack of response earns the
client's eyes remain closed, and there is no minimum of one point in each of the categories: eye opening response, best verbal
evidence of verbalization or movement response, and best motor response.
when the nurse changes the client's
position. What score on the Glasgow Coma
Scale (GCS) should the nurse
document? Record your answer using a
whole number.
Answer: 6
Rationale: The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to assess the extent of neurological
The nurse uses the Glasgow Coma Scale to
damage; it consists of three assessments: eye opening, response to auditory stimuli,
assess a client with a head injury. The
and motor response. Consciousness exists on a continuum from full consciousness
Glasgow Coma Scale score that indicates
to coma. A score can be from 3 to 15; the lower the score the more indicative of
the client is in a coma is a score of:
coma. To achieve the ratings of 9, 12, or 15 the client must be exhibiting some
meaningful responses.




A nurse is caring for a client with a fracture Reduces muscle spasms
of the head of the femur. The health Rationale: Buck's extension is used to reduce the fracture, align the bone, and
care provider places the client in Buck's temporarily reduce muscle spasm. Edema occurs because of tissue trauma and
extension. What explanation does the will not be prevented by Buck's extension. A fractured head of the femur is
nurse give the client for why the traction is repaired via internal fixation; a cast is unnecessary. Damage already has occurred
being used? at the time of trauma and is not prevented by Buck's extension.

Nystagmus, Scanning speech, Intention tremors
Rationale: Involuntary, rhythmic movements of the eyes (nystagmus) and other visual
disturbances, such as diplopia and blurred vision, are common initial symptoms of
Which common initial clinical effects optic nerve lesions. The most common initial signs of multiple sclerosis are scanning
should the nurse expect a client with speech, intention tremors, and nystagmus; this group of signs is known as Charcot's
multiple sclerosis to exhibit? Select all that triad. These adaptations are associated with disseminated demyelination of nerve
apply. fibers of the brain and spinal cord. Although this is a neuromuscular disorder,
headaches are not a common symptom. Pressure ulcers may occur late, not early, in
the progression of the illness because of immobility, and these pressure ulcers may
become infected.

Tofu
A client is cautioned to avoid vitamin
Tofu
D toxicity while increasing protein
Rationale: Tofu products increase protein without increasing vitamin D
intake.
because, unlike milk products, tofu does not contain vitamin D. Eggnog
Which nutrient selected by the client
contains milk and
indicates to the nurse that the




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, 3/23/25, 8:17 Pediatrics Flashcards |
AM
dietary teaching is understood? should be avoided. Cottage cheese, a milk product, contains vitamin D, which
should be avoided. Powdered whole milk contains vitamin D and should be
avoided.
Having them avoid contact with infected persons
Rationale: Chemotherapy and acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) cause
immunosuppression (low white blood cells), thus increasing the risk for infection.
What is important nursing care for
The client should maintain physical activity that can be tolerated. Although vital
clients with leukemia on
signs must be checked to assess for changes in pulse or blood pressure, unless
chemotherapeutic
there is
protocols?
clinical evidence of bleeding, it is not necessary to obtain vital signs every two
hours. Children need stimulation that is appropriate for their developmental level
except when acutely ill.
A health care provider prescribes 250 mg 0.8
of an antibiotic intravenous
piggyback
(IVPB). A vial containing 1 gram of the
powdered form of the medication must be
reconstituted with 2.8 mL of diluent to
form a volume of 3 mL. How many mL
of the
solution should the nurse administer?
Record your answer using one decimal
place including leading zero if applicable.
__mL




Maintaining the client in the supine position for several hours.
Rationale: Staying flat may help to prevent spinal fluid leakage and postprocedure
headache; this is recommended, even though some people develop a headache
A client is scheduled for a lumbar puncture. despite this precaution. Encouraging the client to ambulate every hour for at least 6
What nursing care should be implemented hours may predispose to spinal fluid leakage; the client should be kept flat for 6 to
after the procedure? 12 hours. The Trendelenburg position may increase intracranial pressure and is not
appropriate. Placing the client in the high-Fowler position immediately after the
procedure may predispose to spinal fluid leakage; the client should be kept flat for 6
to 12 hours.




The nurse assists the health care provider Queckenstedt
to perform a lumbar puncture. When Rationale: If there is no obstruction, pressure on the jugular vein causes increased
pressure is placed on the jugular vein intracranial pressure (Queckenstedt sign). This, in turn, causes an increase in spinal
during a lumbar puncture, the spinal fluid fluid pressure. Homan sign is calf pain possibly elicited by dorsiflexion of the foot if
pressure is expected to increase. Which thrombophlebitis is present. Romberg sign is failure to maintain balance when the
sign should the nurse expect the health eyes are closed; it indicates cerebellar pathology. Chvostek sign is twitching elicited
care provider to document? by tapping the angle of the jaw; it occurs if hypocalcemia is present.

Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid) 0.1 gm is 2
prescribed for a client with a urinary
tract infection. Each tablet contains 50 mg.
How many tablets should the nurse
administer? Record your answer using a
whole number.
____tablets




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