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PAEASY EENT EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS VERIFIED GRADED A++

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PAEASY EENT EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS VERIFIED GRADED A++ Terms in this set (247) Which of the following examinations is a major component of routine monitoring of chronic, open angle glaucoma? A Pupillary response B Corneal reflex testing C Visual field testing D Accommodation E Visual acuity Visual Field Testing Tonometry, gonioscopy, monitoring of the disc-to-cup ratio, and visual field examination are the routine exams done when monitoring primary open angle glaucoma. A 30-year-old African-American man is admitted to the hospital to undergo stapedectomy for the treatment of otosclerosis. He had been experiencing increased hearing loss in the right ear over the past few years. His mother had suffered from the same condition when she was in her 40's and had been successfully operated upon. You do an assessment using the Weber and Rinne tests. Question What do you expect to find? Answer Choices 1 Bone conduction of the affected side is greater than air conduction 2 Bone conduction of the affected side is equal to air conduction 3 Air conduction of the affected side is greater than bone conduction 4 Sound lateralizes to the unaffected ear 5 Bone conduction of the unaffected ear is greater than air conduction Explanation The correct response is bone conduction of the affected side is greater than air conduction. Otosclerosis is a pathological condition of the middle-ear in which there is a formation of spongy bone near the footplate of the stapes. As it advances, it causes progressive fixation of the stapes footplate. Therefore, the sound transmission by air conduction from the stapes via the oval window to the perilymph of the inner ear is reduced. Weber tuning fork test is performed by placing the stem of a vibrating tuning fork on the midline of the head and having the patient indicate in which ear the tone is heard. The fork stimulates both inner ears equally. A patient with a unilateral conductive hearing loss hears the tone louder in the affected ear and a patient with a sensorineural loss hears the tone louder in the unaffected ear. In otosclerosis the sound lateralizes to the affected ear. The Rinne tuning fork test compares air to bone conduction. The stem of the vibrating tuning fork is placed on the mastoid process first and then the tines of the tuning fork are held in front of the ear and the patient is asked which stimulus is perceived better. In a healthy individual, the tone is heard longer and louder by air conduction, whereas with a conductive hearing loss, it is the other way around. Therefore, in otosclerosis the bone conduction is better than air conduction (BCAC). With a sensorineural hearing loss, both receptions are reduced, but in the same ratio. A 16-year-old girl has just been diagnosed with severe allergic rhinitis caused by ragweed and dust mite. She is a candidate for allergy immunotherapy, which will involve weekly subcutaneous delivery of the offending allergens in increasing concentrations. Question What is the ultimate goal of this type of immunotherapy for this patient? Answer Choices 1 Immunity 2 Hypersensitization 3 Immune suppression 4 Hyposensitization 5 Eradication of infection hyposensitization Explanation Allergy injections are a type of immunotherapy that is also known as hyposensitization. Exposure to a gradually increasing amount of allergen results in various cellular effects that lead to a decrease in the production of mast cells by the immune system. It does not result in complete immunity and does not suppress the immune system but rather decreases the reactivity of the immune system. This treatment does not serve to treat infections, as the condition that it treats is not infectious in nature. A 44-year-old man presents for follow-up of poorly controlled type I diabetes mellitus, which was diagnosed 32 years ago. What change on his funduscopic examination would indicate a need for urgent referral to an ophthalmologist? Answer Choices 1 Blot hemorrhages 2 Cotton wool spots 3 Microaneurysms 4 Neovascularization 5 Flame-shaped hemorrhages Explanation Neovascularization is the hallmark of proliferative diabetic retinopathy. New vessels can appear at the optic nerve and the macula as a result of retinal hypoxia. They are susceptible to rupture, resulting in vitreous hemorrhage, retinal detachment, and blindness. Proliferative retinopathy requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist and is usually treated with pan retinal laser photocoagulation. The risk of developing diabetic retinopathy is related to the extent of glycemic control and the duration of diabetes. It is classified as nonproliferative and proliferative. Blot hemorrhages, cotton wool spots, and microaneurysms are indicative of nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy, which is usually seen 10 to 20 years after the onset of diabetes. Nonproliferative retinopathy does not always progress to proliferative retinopathy, but if it becomes extensive, it can result in retinal ischemia, which increases the likelihood of proliferative disease. Flame-shaped hemorrhages are indicative of hypertensive retinopathy. A 4-year-old boy accompanied by his mother presents with fever, sore throat, muffled voice, and breathing and swallowing difficulty. The child is leaning forward with his head and nose tilted upward and forward. He is irritable, with moderate respiratory distress and inspiratory stridor. Pulse is 94/min; BP is 110/70 mm Hg, and temperature is 101 F. Question What is the next best step to confirm the diagnosis? Answer Choices 1 Direct fiberoptic laryngoscopy in the operating room 2 Indirect laryngoscopy 3 Examination with tongue depressor 4 Lateral neck radiograph 5 Complete blood count (CBC) and blood culture Explanation Direct fiberoptic laryngoscopy is the correct answer. The patient has symptoms of acute epiglottitis, a diagnosis that can be made on clinical grounds. The next step is direct fiberoptic laryngoscopy performed in a controlled environment - usually the operation theater - in order to visualize and culture the edematous larynx, as well as to secure the airway through placement of an endotracheal tube1. Direct visualization in the examination room with tongue depressor or indirect laryngoscopy is not recommended because of the high risk of immediate laryngospasm and complete airway obstruction1. Lateral neck radiograph usually reveals an enlarged edematous epiglottis (thumbprint sign). Laboratory investigations like complete blood count (CBC) typically reveal elevated leukocytes with neutrophil predominance, and blood cultures are usually positive1. These investigations assist the diagnosis but may delay the critical step of placing the endotracheal tube1. A 35-year-old woman presents with a 24- hour history of purulent drainage and erythema of her right eye. After a brief physical examination, cultures of the drainage are taken and she is started on a medication prophylactically that would cover the most common bacterial causes of conjunctivitis (including sexually transmitted diseases). Question On what medication, in either an oral or topical form, would she most likely be started? Answer Choices 1 Erythromycin 2 Tetracycline 3 Bacitracin 4 Olopatadine 5 Acyclovir erythromycin Explanation Erythromycin ophthalmic ointment, applied 2 - 4 x daily, is a treatment option for non-sexually transmitted bacterial conjunctivitis. If trying to cover all bacterial etiologies of conjunctivitis, then erythromycin can be given in the oral form in order to include good coverage for both gonococcal conjunctivitis and chlamydial conjunctivitis. If the erythromycin ophthalmic ointment were to be prescribed in a patient with a sexually transmitted bacterial conjunctivitis, there may still be a partial or complete resolution of symptoms. Erythromycin, in either the topical or oral form, has a good chance of treating any bacterial cause of conjunctivitis until the culture results confirm the etiologic agent. Tetracycline 250 mg po 4 x daily for 3 weeks is a good treatment choice for chlamydial conjunctivitis should the cultures reveal this as the cause; however, it would not be a good prophylactic choice while waiting for lab results. Bacitracin ophthalmic ointment applied 2 - 4 x daily for 5 days is a good treatment option for patients with bacterial conjunctivitis that is not from a sexually transmitted disease. In these cases, the most common etiologic agent is Staphylococcus aureus. Olopatadine is an antihistamine ophthalmic solution that is used in the treatment of ocular itching associated with allergic conjunctivitis. It would not be of any help in a patient with bacterial conjunctivitis, regardless of the etiology. Acyclovir is an antiviral that is prescribed 400 mg po 5 x a day for 7 days in cases of herpetic viral conjunctivitis. It would not be of any help in a patient with bacterial conjunctivitis, regardless of the etiology. A 28-year-old woman presents with an itchy throat, prolonged sneezing episodes, watery red eyes, and inflamed nasal membranes. Her temperature is normal and a throat culture is negative. She is most likely suffering from allergic rhinitis. Her physician will most likely prescribe diphenhydramine. To what class of compounds does the drug of choice belong? Answer Choices 1 Antihistamine (H1) 2 Cathartic 3 Opioid analgesic 4 Prostaglandin 5 Antihypertensive Explanation Antihistamines are drugs that have major applications in treating the symptoms of allergic rhinitis and urticaria. They may also be used in treating motion sickness and nausea. Some antihistamines, because of their strong sedative properties, are used in the treatment of insomnia; therefore, they also find their way into many over-the- counter sleep aids. The most common adverse effect observed with H1 receptor blockers is sedation. Other effects seen are tremors, blurred vision, lassitude, dizziness, fatigue, drying of the nasal passages, and dry mouth. Antihistamines can interact with other drugs, leading to serious consequences such as the potentiation of the effects of CNS depressants (alcohol, etc.). Monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors can potentiate the anticholinergic effects of antihistamines. In spite of this, H1 receptor blockers are relatively safe. Chronic toxicity is rare; however, acute poisoning is common, especially among children, and leads to dangerous effects such as hallucinations, ataxia, convulsions, and (if untreated) coma and cardiorespiratory collapse.

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3/23/25, 8:56 PAeasy EENT Flashcards |
AM Quizlet


PAEASY EENT EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH COMPLETE
SOLUTIONS VERIFIED GRADED A++

Terms in this set (247)


Which of the following examinations is a Visual Field Testing
major component of routine monitoring of Tonometry, gonioscopy, monitoring of the disc-to-cup ratio, and visual field
chronic, open angle glaucoma? examination are the routine exams done when monitoring primary open angle
A Pupillary response glaucoma.
B Corneal reflex testing
C Visual field testing
D Accommodation
E Visual acuity


A 30-year-old African-American man is Explanation
admitted to the hospital to undergo The correct response is bone conduction of the affected side is greater than air
stapedectomy for the treatment of conduction.
otosclerosis. He had been experiencing
increased hearing loss in the right ear over Otosclerosis is a pathological condition of the middle-ear in which there is a
the past few years. His mother had formation of spongy bone near the footplate of the stapes. As it advances, it causes
suffered from the same condition when progressive fixation of the stapes footplate. Therefore, the sound transmission by
she was in air conduction from the stapes via the oval window to the perilymph of the inner ear
her 40's and had been successfully is reduced.
operated upon. You do an assessment
using the Weber and Rinne tests. Weber tuning fork test is performed by placing the stem of a vibrating tuning fork
on the midline of the head and having the patient indicate in which ear the tone is
heard. The fork stimulates both inner ears equally. A patient with a unilateral
conductive hearing loss hears the tone louder in the affected ear and a patient
Question with a sensorineural loss hears the tone louder in the unaffected ear. In
What do you expect to find? otosclerosis the sound lateralizes to the affected ear.


Answer Choices The Rinne tuning fork test compares air to bone conduction. The stem of the
1 Bone conduction of the vibrating tuning fork is placed on the mastoid process first and then the tines of the
affected side is greater than air tuning fork are held in front of the ear and the patient is asked which stimulus is
conduction perceived better. In a healthy individual, the tone is heard longer and louder by air
2 Bone conduction of the affected side is conduction, whereas with a conductive hearing loss, it is the other way around.
equal to air conduction Therefore, in otosclerosis the bone conduction is better than air conduction
3 Air conduction of the affected side is (BC>AC). With a sensorineural hearing loss, both receptions are reduced, but in the
greater than bone conduction same ratio.
4 Sound lateralizes to the unaffected ear
5 Bone conduction of the unaffected ear is
greater than air conduction




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,3/23/25, 8:56 PAeasy EENT Flashcards |
AM Quizlet
A 16-year-old girl has just been diagnosed hyposensitization
with severe allergic rhinitis caused by Explanation
ragweed and dust mite. She is a candidate Allergy injections are a type of immunotherapy that is also known as
for allergy immunotherapy, which will hyposensitization. Exposure to a gradually increasing amount of allergen results in
involve weekly subcutaneous delivery of various cellular effects that lead to a decrease in the production of mast cells by the
the offending allergens in increasing immune system. It does not result in complete immunity and does not suppress the
concentrations. immune system but rather decreases the reactivity of the immune system. This
treatment does not serve to treat infections, as the condition that it treats is not
infectious in nature.


Question
What is the ultimate goal of this type of
immunotherapy for this patient?


Answer Choices
1 Immunity
2 Hypersensitization
3 Immune suppression
4 Hyposensitization
5 Eradication of infection




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,3/23/25, 8:56 PAeasy EENT Flashcards |
AM Quizlet
Explanation
Neovascularization is the hallmark of proliferative diabetic retinopathy. New
vessels can appear at the optic nerve and the macula as a result of retinal hypoxia.
A 44-year-old man presents for follow-up
They are susceptible to rupture, resulting in vitreous hemorrhage, retinal
of poorly controlled type I diabetes
detachment, and
mellitus, which was diagnosed 32 years
blindness. Proliferative retinopathy requires urgent referral to an
ago. What change on his funduscopic
ophthalmologist and is usually treated with pan retinal laser
examination would indicate a need for
photocoagulation.
urgent referral to an ophthalmologist?

The risk of developing diabetic retinopathy is related to the extent of glycemic
Answer Choices
control and the duration of diabetes. It is classified as nonproliferative and
1 Blot hemorrhages
proliferative.
2 Cotton wool spots
3 Microaneurysms
Blot hemorrhages, cotton wool spots, and microaneurysms are indicative of
4 Neovascularization
nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy, which is usually seen 10 to 20 years after the
5 Flame-shaped hemorrhages
onset of diabetes. Nonproliferative retinopathy does not always progress to
proliferative retinopathy, but if it becomes extensive, it can result in retinal ischemia,
which increases the likelihood of proliferative disease.


Flame-shaped hemorrhages are indicative of hypertensive retinopathy.
A 4-year-old boy accompanied by his Explanation
mother presents with fever, sore throat, Direct fiberoptic laryngoscopy is the correct answer. The patient has symptoms
muffled voice, and breathing and of acute epiglottitis, a diagnosis that can be made on clinical grounds. The next
swallowing difficulty. The child is step is direct fiberoptic laryngoscopy performed in a controlled environment -
leaning forward with his head and usually the operation theater - in order to visualize and culture the edematous
nose tilted larynx, as well as to secure the airway through placement of an endotracheal
upward and forward. He is irritable, with tube1.
moderate respiratory distress and
inspiratory stridor. Pulse is 94/min; BP is Direct visualization in the examination room with tongue depressor or indirect
110/70 mm Hg, and temperature is 101 F. laryngoscopy is not recommended because of the high risk of immediate
laryngospasm and complete airway obstruction1.


Lateral neck radiograph usually reveals an enlarged edematous epiglottis
Question (thumbprint sign). Laboratory investigations like complete blood count (CBC)
What is the next best step to confirm the typically reveal elevated leukocytes with neutrophil predominance, and blood
diagnosis? cultures are usually positive1. These investigations assist the diagnosis but may delay
the critical step of placing the endotracheal tube1.
Answer Choices
1 Direct fiberoptic
laryngoscopy in the operating room
2 Indirect laryngoscopy
3 Examination with tongue depressor
4 Lateral neck radiograph
5 Complete blood count (CBC) and
blood culture




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, 3/23/25, 8:56 PAeasy EENT Flashcards |
AM Quizlet
erythromycin
Explanation
A 35-year-old woman presents with a 24- Erythromycin ophthalmic ointment, applied 2 - 4 x daily, is a treatment option
hour history of purulent drainage and for non-sexually transmitted bacterial conjunctivitis. If trying to cover all
erythema of her right eye. After a bacterial
brief physical examination, cultures etiologies of conjunctivitis, then erythromycin can be given in the oral form in order
of the to include good coverage for both gonococcal conjunctivitis and chlamydial
drainage are taken and she is started on conjunctivitis. If the erythromycin ophthalmic ointment were to be prescribed in a
a medication prophylactically that patient with a sexually transmitted bacterial conjunctivitis, there may still be a partial
would cover the most common bacterial or complete resolution of symptoms. Erythromycin, in either the topical or oral
causes of conjunctivitis (including form, has a good chance of treating any bacterial cause of conjunctivitis until the
sexually culture results confirm the etiologic agent.
transmitted diseases).
Tetracycline 250 mg po 4 x daily for 3 weeks is a good treatment choice for
chlamydial conjunctivitis should the cultures reveal this as the cause; however, it
would not be a good prophylactic choice while waiting for lab results.
Question
On what medication, in either an oral or Bacitracin ophthalmic ointment applied 2 - 4 x daily for 5 days is a good treatment
topical form, would she most likely be option for patients with bacterial conjunctivitis that is not from a sexually transmitted
started? disease. In these cases, the most common etiologic agent is Staphylococcus aureus.


Answer Choices Olopatadine is an antihistamine ophthalmic solution that is used in the treatment of
1 Erythromycin ocular itching associated with allergic conjunctivitis. It would not be of any help in a
2Tetracycline patient with bacterial conjunctivitis, regardless of the etiology.
3 Bacitracin
4 Olopatadine Acyclovir is an antiviral that is prescribed 400 mg po 5 x a day for 7 days in cases of
5 Acyclovir herpetic viral conjunctivitis. It would not be of any help in a patient with bacterial
conjunctivitis, regardless of the etiology.

A 28-year-old woman presents with an Explanation
itchy throat, prolonged sneezing episodes, Antihistamines are drugs that have major applications in treating the symptoms of
watery red eyes, and inflamed nasal allergic rhinitis and urticaria. They may also be used in treating motion sickness and
membranes. Her temperature is normal and nausea. Some antihistamines, because of their strong sedative properties, are used in
a throat culture is negative. She is most the treatment of insomnia; therefore, they also find their way into many over-the-
likely suffering from allergic rhinitis. Her counter sleep aids. The most common adverse effect observed with H1 receptor
physician will most likely prescribe blockers is sedation. Other effects seen are tremors, blurred vision, lassitude,
diphenhydramine. To what class of dizziness, fatigue, drying of the nasal passages, and dry mouth. Antihistamines can
compounds does the drug of choice interact with other drugs, leading to serious consequences such as the potentiation
belong? of the effects of CNS depressants (alcohol, etc.). Monoamine oxidase (MAO)
inhibitors can potentiate the anticholinergic effects of antihistamines. In spite of this,
Answer Choices H1 receptor blockers are relatively safe. Chronic toxicity is rare; however, acute
1 Antihistamine (H1) poisoning is common, especially among children, and leads to dangerous effects
2 Cathartic such as hallucinations, ataxia, convulsions, and (if untreated) coma and
3 Opioid analgesic cardiorespiratory collapse.
4 Prostaglandin
5 Antihypertensive




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