3/29/25, 8:27 HESI Pharmacology exit |
AM
HESI PHARMACOLOGY EXIT EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH COMPLETE
SOLUTIONS VERIFIED
Terms in this set (1036)
A healthcare provider prescribes A) Penicillins.
cephalexin monohydrate (Keflex) for a
client with a postoperative infection. It is Cross-allergies exist between penicillins (A) and cephalosporins, such as cephalexin
most important for the nurse to assess monohydrate (Keflex), so checking for penicillin allergy is a wise precaution before
for what additional drug allergy before administering this drug.
administering this prescription?
A) Penicillins.
B)Aminoglycosides.
C) Erythromycins.
D) Sulfonamides.
Which nursing intervention is most C) Inspect the client's oral mucosa for ulcerations.
important when caring for a client
receiving the antimetabolite cytosine Cytosine arabinoside (Arc-C) affects the rapidly growing cells of the body, therefore
arabinoside (Arc-C) for chemotherapy? stomatitis and mucosal ulcerations are key signs of antimetabolite toxicity (C). (A,
A) Hydrate the client with IV fluids before B, and D) are not typical interventions associated with the administration of
and after infusion. antimetabolites.
B)Assess the client for numbness
and tingling of extremities.
C) Inspect the client's oral mucosa
for ulcerations.
D) Monitor the client's urine pH for
increased acidity.
When assessing an adolescent who B) Abdomen.
recently overdosed on acetaminophen
(Tylenol), it is most important for the nurse Acetaminophen toxicity can result in liver damage; therefore, it is especially
to assess for pain in which area of the important for the nurse to assess for pain in the right upper quadrant of the
body? abdomen (B), which might indicate liver damage. (A, C, and D) are not areas where
A) Flank. pain would be anticipated.
B)Abdomen.
C) Chest.
D) Head.
1/26
,3/29/25, 8:27 HESI Pharmacology exit |
AM
An adult client is given a prescription for A) Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure.
a scopolamine patch (Transderm Scop)
to Scopolamine, an anticholinergic agent, is used to prevent motion sickness and has
prevent motion sickness while on a cruise. a peak onset in 6 hours, so the client should be instructed to apply the patch at
Which information should the nurse least 4 hours before departure (A) on the cruise ship. The duration of the
provide to the client? transdermal patch is 72 hours, so (B) is not needed. Scolopamine blocks muscarinic
A) Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to receptors in the
departure. inner ear and to the vomiting center, so the best application site of the patch is
B) Change the patch every other day while behind the ear, not at the base of the skull (C). Anticholinergic medications are CNS
on the cruise. depressants, so the client should be instructed to avoid alcohol (D) while using the
C) Place the patch on a hairless area at patch.
the base of the skull.
D) Drink no more than 2 alcoholic
drinks during the cruise.
The nurse is reviewing the use of the B) The rate and depth of the client's respirations.
patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump
with a client in the immediate A life-threatening side effect of intravenous administration of morphine sulfate, an
postoperative period. The client will opiate narcotic, is respiratory depression (B). The PCA pump should be stopped and
receive morphine 1 the healthcare provider notified if the client's respiratory rate falls below 12 breaths
mg IV per hour basal rate with 1 mg IV per minute, and the nurse should anticipate adjustments in the client's dosage
every 15 minutes per PCA to total 5 mg before the PCA pump is restarted. (A, C, and D) provide helpful information, but are
IV maximally per hour. What assessment not as high a priority as the assessment described in (B).
has the highest priority before
initiating the PCA pump?
A) The expiration date on the
morphine syringe in the pump.
B)The rate and depth of the
client's respirations.
C) The type of anesthesia used during
the surgical procedure.
D)The client's subjective and
objective signs of pain.
C) Heart failure.
A medication that is classified as a beta-1
agonist is most commonly prescribed for a Beta-1 agonists improve cardiac output by increasing the heart rate and blood
client with which condition? pressure and are indicated in heart failure (C), shock, atrioventricular block
A) Glaucoma. dysrhythmias, and cardiac arrest. Glaucoma (A) is managed using adrenergic agents
B) Hypertension. and beta-adrenergic blocking agents. Beta-1 blocking agents are used in the
C) Heart failure. management of hypertension (B). Medications that stimulate beta-2 receptors in the
D) Asthma. bronchi are effective for bronchoconstriction in respiratory disorders, such as
asthma
(D).
2/26
, 3/29/25, 8:27 HESI Pharmacology exit |
AM
A female client with rheumatoid A) Use contraception during intercourse.
arthritis take ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg
PO 4 times a day. To prevent Cytotec, a synthetic form of a prostaglandin, is classified as pregnancy Category X
gastrointestinal bleeding, misoprostol and can act as an abortifacient, so the client should be instructed to use
(Cytotec) 100 mcg PO is contraception during intercourse (A) to prevent loss of an early pregnancy. (B) is
prescribed. Which information is most not necessary. A common side effect of Cytotec is diarrhea, so constipation
important for the nurse to include in client prevention strategies are usually not needed (C). Cytotec and Motrin should be
teaching? taken together
A) Use contraception during intercourse. (D) to provide protective properties against gastrointestinal bleeding.
B) Ensure the Cytotec is taken on an
empty stomach.
C) Encourage oral fluid intake to
prevent constipation.
D)Take Cytotec 30 minutes prior to Motrin.
A client with heart failure is prescribed B) Refrain for eating foods high in potassium.
spironolactone (Aldactone). Which
information is most important for the nurse Spironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone antagonist, is a potassium-sparing
to provide to the client about diet diuretic, so a diet high in potassium should be avoided (B), including potassium
modifications? salt substitutes, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Although (A) is a common diet
A) Do not add salt to foods modification in heart failure, the risk of hyperkalemia is more important with
during preparation. Aldactone. Restriction of fluids (C) or increasing milk and milk products (D) are not
B) Refrain for eating foods high indicated with this prescription.
in potassium.
C) Restrict fluid intake to 1000 ml per day.
D) Increase intake of milk and
milk products.
In evaluating the effects of lactulose B) Two or three soft stools per day.
(Cephulac), which outcome should indicate
that the drug is performing as intended? Lactulose is administered to reduce blood ammonia by excretion of ammonia
A) An increase in urine output. through the stool. Two to three stools a day indicate that lactulose is performing as
B)Two or three soft stools per day. intended (B). (A) would be expected if the patient received a diuretic. (C) would
C) Watery, diarrhea stools. indicate an overdose of lactulose and is not expected. Lactulose does not affect (D).
D) Increased serum bilirubin.
The healthcare provider prescribes C) Another type of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug may be indicated.
naproxen (Naproxen) twice daily for a
client with osteoarthritis of the hands. The Individual responses to nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs are variable, so (C) is
client tells the nurse that the drug does not the best response. Naproxen is usually prescribed every 8 hours, so (A) is not
seem to be effective after three weeks. indicated. The peak for naproxen is one to two hours, not (B). Corticosteroids are
Which is the best response for the nurse to not indicated for osteoarthritis (D).
provide?
A) The frequency of the dosing is necessary
to increase the effectiveness.
B)Therapeutic blood levels of this drug are
reached in 4 to 6 weeks.
C) Another type of nonsteroidal
antiinflammatory drug may be indicated.
D) Systemic corticosteroids are the
next drugs of choice for pain relief.
3/26
AM
HESI PHARMACOLOGY EXIT EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH COMPLETE
SOLUTIONS VERIFIED
Terms in this set (1036)
A healthcare provider prescribes A) Penicillins.
cephalexin monohydrate (Keflex) for a
client with a postoperative infection. It is Cross-allergies exist between penicillins (A) and cephalosporins, such as cephalexin
most important for the nurse to assess monohydrate (Keflex), so checking for penicillin allergy is a wise precaution before
for what additional drug allergy before administering this drug.
administering this prescription?
A) Penicillins.
B)Aminoglycosides.
C) Erythromycins.
D) Sulfonamides.
Which nursing intervention is most C) Inspect the client's oral mucosa for ulcerations.
important when caring for a client
receiving the antimetabolite cytosine Cytosine arabinoside (Arc-C) affects the rapidly growing cells of the body, therefore
arabinoside (Arc-C) for chemotherapy? stomatitis and mucosal ulcerations are key signs of antimetabolite toxicity (C). (A,
A) Hydrate the client with IV fluids before B, and D) are not typical interventions associated with the administration of
and after infusion. antimetabolites.
B)Assess the client for numbness
and tingling of extremities.
C) Inspect the client's oral mucosa
for ulcerations.
D) Monitor the client's urine pH for
increased acidity.
When assessing an adolescent who B) Abdomen.
recently overdosed on acetaminophen
(Tylenol), it is most important for the nurse Acetaminophen toxicity can result in liver damage; therefore, it is especially
to assess for pain in which area of the important for the nurse to assess for pain in the right upper quadrant of the
body? abdomen (B), which might indicate liver damage. (A, C, and D) are not areas where
A) Flank. pain would be anticipated.
B)Abdomen.
C) Chest.
D) Head.
1/26
,3/29/25, 8:27 HESI Pharmacology exit |
AM
An adult client is given a prescription for A) Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure.
a scopolamine patch (Transderm Scop)
to Scopolamine, an anticholinergic agent, is used to prevent motion sickness and has
prevent motion sickness while on a cruise. a peak onset in 6 hours, so the client should be instructed to apply the patch at
Which information should the nurse least 4 hours before departure (A) on the cruise ship. The duration of the
provide to the client? transdermal patch is 72 hours, so (B) is not needed. Scolopamine blocks muscarinic
A) Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to receptors in the
departure. inner ear and to the vomiting center, so the best application site of the patch is
B) Change the patch every other day while behind the ear, not at the base of the skull (C). Anticholinergic medications are CNS
on the cruise. depressants, so the client should be instructed to avoid alcohol (D) while using the
C) Place the patch on a hairless area at patch.
the base of the skull.
D) Drink no more than 2 alcoholic
drinks during the cruise.
The nurse is reviewing the use of the B) The rate and depth of the client's respirations.
patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump
with a client in the immediate A life-threatening side effect of intravenous administration of morphine sulfate, an
postoperative period. The client will opiate narcotic, is respiratory depression (B). The PCA pump should be stopped and
receive morphine 1 the healthcare provider notified if the client's respiratory rate falls below 12 breaths
mg IV per hour basal rate with 1 mg IV per minute, and the nurse should anticipate adjustments in the client's dosage
every 15 minutes per PCA to total 5 mg before the PCA pump is restarted. (A, C, and D) provide helpful information, but are
IV maximally per hour. What assessment not as high a priority as the assessment described in (B).
has the highest priority before
initiating the PCA pump?
A) The expiration date on the
morphine syringe in the pump.
B)The rate and depth of the
client's respirations.
C) The type of anesthesia used during
the surgical procedure.
D)The client's subjective and
objective signs of pain.
C) Heart failure.
A medication that is classified as a beta-1
agonist is most commonly prescribed for a Beta-1 agonists improve cardiac output by increasing the heart rate and blood
client with which condition? pressure and are indicated in heart failure (C), shock, atrioventricular block
A) Glaucoma. dysrhythmias, and cardiac arrest. Glaucoma (A) is managed using adrenergic agents
B) Hypertension. and beta-adrenergic blocking agents. Beta-1 blocking agents are used in the
C) Heart failure. management of hypertension (B). Medications that stimulate beta-2 receptors in the
D) Asthma. bronchi are effective for bronchoconstriction in respiratory disorders, such as
asthma
(D).
2/26
, 3/29/25, 8:27 HESI Pharmacology exit |
AM
A female client with rheumatoid A) Use contraception during intercourse.
arthritis take ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg
PO 4 times a day. To prevent Cytotec, a synthetic form of a prostaglandin, is classified as pregnancy Category X
gastrointestinal bleeding, misoprostol and can act as an abortifacient, so the client should be instructed to use
(Cytotec) 100 mcg PO is contraception during intercourse (A) to prevent loss of an early pregnancy. (B) is
prescribed. Which information is most not necessary. A common side effect of Cytotec is diarrhea, so constipation
important for the nurse to include in client prevention strategies are usually not needed (C). Cytotec and Motrin should be
teaching? taken together
A) Use contraception during intercourse. (D) to provide protective properties against gastrointestinal bleeding.
B) Ensure the Cytotec is taken on an
empty stomach.
C) Encourage oral fluid intake to
prevent constipation.
D)Take Cytotec 30 minutes prior to Motrin.
A client with heart failure is prescribed B) Refrain for eating foods high in potassium.
spironolactone (Aldactone). Which
information is most important for the nurse Spironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone antagonist, is a potassium-sparing
to provide to the client about diet diuretic, so a diet high in potassium should be avoided (B), including potassium
modifications? salt substitutes, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Although (A) is a common diet
A) Do not add salt to foods modification in heart failure, the risk of hyperkalemia is more important with
during preparation. Aldactone. Restriction of fluids (C) or increasing milk and milk products (D) are not
B) Refrain for eating foods high indicated with this prescription.
in potassium.
C) Restrict fluid intake to 1000 ml per day.
D) Increase intake of milk and
milk products.
In evaluating the effects of lactulose B) Two or three soft stools per day.
(Cephulac), which outcome should indicate
that the drug is performing as intended? Lactulose is administered to reduce blood ammonia by excretion of ammonia
A) An increase in urine output. through the stool. Two to three stools a day indicate that lactulose is performing as
B)Two or three soft stools per day. intended (B). (A) would be expected if the patient received a diuretic. (C) would
C) Watery, diarrhea stools. indicate an overdose of lactulose and is not expected. Lactulose does not affect (D).
D) Increased serum bilirubin.
The healthcare provider prescribes C) Another type of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug may be indicated.
naproxen (Naproxen) twice daily for a
client with osteoarthritis of the hands. The Individual responses to nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs are variable, so (C) is
client tells the nurse that the drug does not the best response. Naproxen is usually prescribed every 8 hours, so (A) is not
seem to be effective after three weeks. indicated. The peak for naproxen is one to two hours, not (B). Corticosteroids are
Which is the best response for the nurse to not indicated for osteoarthritis (D).
provide?
A) The frequency of the dosing is necessary
to increase the effectiveness.
B)Therapeutic blood levels of this drug are
reached in 4 to 6 weeks.
C) Another type of nonsteroidal
antiinflammatory drug may be indicated.
D) Systemic corticosteroids are the
next drugs of choice for pain relief.
3/26
