3/29/25, 8:28
AM
PHARM PRACTICE FOR EXIT HESI EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH
COMPLETE SOLUTIONS VERIFIED GRADED A++
Terms in this set (100)
A client takes morphine sulfate for C. respiratory depression
severe metastatic bone pain. The nurse will
assess the client for which adverse Morphine sulfate is a central nervous system depressant that commonly decreases
effect? the respiratory rate, which can lead to respiratory arrest. Morphine, an opioid, will
a.diarrhea cause constipation, not diarrhea. Addiction is not a concern for a terminally ill client.
b. addiction Urinary retention, not diuresis, is a common side effect of morphine.
c. respiratory depression
d. diuresis
Captopril is prescribed for a client. Which d. decreased blood pressure
effect would the nurse anticipate?
a.increased urine output Captopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor antihypertensive. It
b. decreased anxiety does not have diuretic, sedative, or hypnotic properties. Diuretics promote fluid
c. improved sleep excretion. Sedatives reduce muscle tension and anxiety. Hypnotics promote sleep.
d. decreased blood pressure
1/24
,3/29/25, 8:28
AM
Which assessment finding supports the a. rigidity
diagnosis of neuroleptic malignant b. sweating
syndrome (NMS) in a client with d. temperature of 105.8
schizophrenia being treated with
haloperidol? Select all that apply. One, NMS can be fatal and requires immediate treatment. Seizures and dysrhythmias are
some, or all responses may be correct. clinical manifestations of NMS; however, these symptoms may be due to other
a. rigidity conditions. Therefore, the nurse will assess a client for other signs of NMS, which
b. sweating include rigidity, sweating, and high fevers that may exceed 105.8°F (41°C). Tongue
c. tongue rolling rolling and arching of the trunk are signs of acute dystonia, not NMS.
d. temperature of 105.8
e.arching of the trunk
Which medications would the hospital d. atropine and pralidoxime chrloride
emergency department staff keep on hand
in anticipation of the arrival of victims Sarin is a highly toxic nerve gas that enters the body through the eyes and skin and
exposed to sarin gas in a terrorist attack? acts by paralyzing the respiratory muscles. Atropine and pralidoxime chloride are an
a.furosemide and nitroglycerin antidote for the nerve gas poisoning. Furosemide and nitroglycerin do not
b. fentalnyl and acetaminophen reverse the effects of sarin gas. Fentanyl and acetaminophen are analgesics but
c. azithromycin and ceftriaxone do not act as antidotes for sarin gas poisoning. Azithromycin and ceftriaxone are
d. atropine and pralidoxime chloride antibiotics that treat infections but do not reverse the sarin gas poisoning.
A client requires intravenous fluids d. drops for mililiter delivered by the infusion set
postoperatively. The health care provider
has prescribed 5% dextrose in water (D Knowing the number of drops per milliliter delivered by the infusion set is
5W) to infuse at 125 mL/h. To deliver the necessary to calculate the drip rate of an intravenous infusion. The total fluid
solution at the correct drip rate, which volume in the bag does not determine the drip rate. The diameter of the tubing
information would the nurse require to being used does not
calculate the rate? determine the drip rate, only the size of the drop. The size of the needle or
a.total fluid volume in bag catheter in the vein does not determine the drip rate. Different infusion sets
b. diameter of the tubing being used deliver different, preset numbers of drops per milliliter.
c. size of the needle or catheter in the vein
d. drops per mililiter delivered by the
infusion set
A child with Wilms tumor is prescribed c. red urine
doxorubicin hydrochloride. Which common
side effect unique to doxorubicin would Red urine is a common side effect of doxorubicin administration. The medication is
the nurse expect to observe in the not metabolized and is excreted in the urine. The genitourinary responses to
child? vincristine are nocturia, oliguria, urine retention, and gonadal suppression. Hair loss,
a.hair loss vomiting, and stomatitis occur with both medications.
b. vomiting
c. red urine
d. stomatitis
The nurse is preparing to administer c. 12-month-old with a Hep A vaccine (Inactive viral antigen) SubQ; outer aspect
vaccinations to four different infants. Which of upper arm
infant's vaccination plan requires
correction? The hepatitis A vaccine is a form of inactive viral antigen and is administered
a.13-month-old with a MMR vaccine (live) intramuscularly into the deltoid in two doses. The measles, mumps, and rubella
SubQ; outer aspect of upper arm (MMR) vaccine is a combination of three live virus vaccines administered
b. 2-month-old with a DTap vaccine subcutaneously on the outer aspect of the upper arm in two doses. The first dose is
(toxoid) IM; deltoid, mediolateral aspect of given between the ages of 12 to 15 months. The diphtheria, tetanus toxoid, and
thigh acellular pertussis (DTaP) vaccine is injected intramuscularly into the deltoid or the
c. 12-month-old with a Hep A vaccine mediolateral aspect of the thigh. It is administered in five doses at the ages of 2
(Inactive viral antigen) SubQ; outer aspect months, 4 months, 6 months, between 15 and 18 months, and at 4 to 6 years of age. The
of upper arm hepatitis B vaccine is injected intramuscularly into the deltoid or anterolateral
d. 1-month-old with a Hep B vaccine aspect of the thigh in three different doses. The first dose is given at birth followed
(inactive viral antigen) SubQ; deltoid by a second dose at 1 month of age and a final dose 5 months after administering
anterolateral aspect of thigh the second dose.
2/24
, 3/29/25, 8:28
AM
A client is admitted to the hospital, and a. assess for dizziness
benazepril is prescribed for hypertension.
Which is an appropriate nursing action for
clients taking this medication?
a.assess for dizziness
b. assess for dark, tarry stools
c. administer the medication after meals
d. monitor the electroencephalogram
(EEG)
A thin 24-year-old woman who runs 10 c. vitamin d
miles each week asks the nurse for advice
about preventing osteoporosis. Which All women, except those who are pregnant or lactating, should ingest between 1000
vitamin would the nurse recommend? and 1300 mg of calcium daily; if the client is unable to ingest enough calcium in
a.vitamin e food, supplements of calcium and vitamin D are recommended. Vitamin C helps
b.vitamin b maintain
c. vitamin d cartilage and connective tissue integrity but does not help prevent osteoporosis.
d. vitamin c Vitamins E and B do not help prevent osteoporosis.
b. increased urinary frequency
A client presents to the clinic for a follow-
d. muscle twitching
up appointment after starting
e. diarrhea
pyridostigmine for management of
myasthenia gravis. Which new client
Pyridostigmine is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor. By inhibiting the enzyme that
problems are adverse effects of
breaks down acetylcholine, it increases cholinergic activity. The increased
pyridostigmine? Select all that apply. One,
cholinergic activity is responsible for the most common adverse effects of
some, or all responses may be correct.
pyridostigmine such as diarrhea and increased urinary frequency. Another adverse
a.respiratory depression
effect is muscle twitching that occurs as pyridostigmine affects the muscle
b. increased urinary frequency
weakness that is characteristic of myasthenia gravis. Respiratory depression is a
c. diplopia
clinical manifestation of myasthenia gravis that can occur due to respiratory muscle
d. muscle twitching
weakness. Weakness of eye muscles results in ptosis or diplopia in about half of
e. diarrhea
clients with myasthenia gravis.
A female client receiving cortisone therapy d. "The medication contains a hormone that causes male characteristics."
for adrenal insufficiency expresses concern
that she is developing facial hair. How Some cortisol derivatives possess 17-keto-steroid (androgenic) properties, which
would the nurse respond? result in hirsutism. Facial hair is not a sign of the illness; it results from androgens that
a."It is just another sign of adrenal are present in cortisol. Hirsutism will be a long-term problem because therapy is
insufficiency." provided on a long-term, usually lifelong, basis. The response "This is not important
b. "This side effect will disappear as long as you are feeling better" doesn't address the client's concerns.
after therapy."
c. "This is not important as long as you
are feeling better."
d. "The medication contains a hormone
that causes male characteristics."
3/24
AM
PHARM PRACTICE FOR EXIT HESI EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH
COMPLETE SOLUTIONS VERIFIED GRADED A++
Terms in this set (100)
A client takes morphine sulfate for C. respiratory depression
severe metastatic bone pain. The nurse will
assess the client for which adverse Morphine sulfate is a central nervous system depressant that commonly decreases
effect? the respiratory rate, which can lead to respiratory arrest. Morphine, an opioid, will
a.diarrhea cause constipation, not diarrhea. Addiction is not a concern for a terminally ill client.
b. addiction Urinary retention, not diuresis, is a common side effect of morphine.
c. respiratory depression
d. diuresis
Captopril is prescribed for a client. Which d. decreased blood pressure
effect would the nurse anticipate?
a.increased urine output Captopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor antihypertensive. It
b. decreased anxiety does not have diuretic, sedative, or hypnotic properties. Diuretics promote fluid
c. improved sleep excretion. Sedatives reduce muscle tension and anxiety. Hypnotics promote sleep.
d. decreased blood pressure
1/24
,3/29/25, 8:28
AM
Which assessment finding supports the a. rigidity
diagnosis of neuroleptic malignant b. sweating
syndrome (NMS) in a client with d. temperature of 105.8
schizophrenia being treated with
haloperidol? Select all that apply. One, NMS can be fatal and requires immediate treatment. Seizures and dysrhythmias are
some, or all responses may be correct. clinical manifestations of NMS; however, these symptoms may be due to other
a. rigidity conditions. Therefore, the nurse will assess a client for other signs of NMS, which
b. sweating include rigidity, sweating, and high fevers that may exceed 105.8°F (41°C). Tongue
c. tongue rolling rolling and arching of the trunk are signs of acute dystonia, not NMS.
d. temperature of 105.8
e.arching of the trunk
Which medications would the hospital d. atropine and pralidoxime chrloride
emergency department staff keep on hand
in anticipation of the arrival of victims Sarin is a highly toxic nerve gas that enters the body through the eyes and skin and
exposed to sarin gas in a terrorist attack? acts by paralyzing the respiratory muscles. Atropine and pralidoxime chloride are an
a.furosemide and nitroglycerin antidote for the nerve gas poisoning. Furosemide and nitroglycerin do not
b. fentalnyl and acetaminophen reverse the effects of sarin gas. Fentanyl and acetaminophen are analgesics but
c. azithromycin and ceftriaxone do not act as antidotes for sarin gas poisoning. Azithromycin and ceftriaxone are
d. atropine and pralidoxime chloride antibiotics that treat infections but do not reverse the sarin gas poisoning.
A client requires intravenous fluids d. drops for mililiter delivered by the infusion set
postoperatively. The health care provider
has prescribed 5% dextrose in water (D Knowing the number of drops per milliliter delivered by the infusion set is
5W) to infuse at 125 mL/h. To deliver the necessary to calculate the drip rate of an intravenous infusion. The total fluid
solution at the correct drip rate, which volume in the bag does not determine the drip rate. The diameter of the tubing
information would the nurse require to being used does not
calculate the rate? determine the drip rate, only the size of the drop. The size of the needle or
a.total fluid volume in bag catheter in the vein does not determine the drip rate. Different infusion sets
b. diameter of the tubing being used deliver different, preset numbers of drops per milliliter.
c. size of the needle or catheter in the vein
d. drops per mililiter delivered by the
infusion set
A child with Wilms tumor is prescribed c. red urine
doxorubicin hydrochloride. Which common
side effect unique to doxorubicin would Red urine is a common side effect of doxorubicin administration. The medication is
the nurse expect to observe in the not metabolized and is excreted in the urine. The genitourinary responses to
child? vincristine are nocturia, oliguria, urine retention, and gonadal suppression. Hair loss,
a.hair loss vomiting, and stomatitis occur with both medications.
b. vomiting
c. red urine
d. stomatitis
The nurse is preparing to administer c. 12-month-old with a Hep A vaccine (Inactive viral antigen) SubQ; outer aspect
vaccinations to four different infants. Which of upper arm
infant's vaccination plan requires
correction? The hepatitis A vaccine is a form of inactive viral antigen and is administered
a.13-month-old with a MMR vaccine (live) intramuscularly into the deltoid in two doses. The measles, mumps, and rubella
SubQ; outer aspect of upper arm (MMR) vaccine is a combination of three live virus vaccines administered
b. 2-month-old with a DTap vaccine subcutaneously on the outer aspect of the upper arm in two doses. The first dose is
(toxoid) IM; deltoid, mediolateral aspect of given between the ages of 12 to 15 months. The diphtheria, tetanus toxoid, and
thigh acellular pertussis (DTaP) vaccine is injected intramuscularly into the deltoid or the
c. 12-month-old with a Hep A vaccine mediolateral aspect of the thigh. It is administered in five doses at the ages of 2
(Inactive viral antigen) SubQ; outer aspect months, 4 months, 6 months, between 15 and 18 months, and at 4 to 6 years of age. The
of upper arm hepatitis B vaccine is injected intramuscularly into the deltoid or anterolateral
d. 1-month-old with a Hep B vaccine aspect of the thigh in three different doses. The first dose is given at birth followed
(inactive viral antigen) SubQ; deltoid by a second dose at 1 month of age and a final dose 5 months after administering
anterolateral aspect of thigh the second dose.
2/24
, 3/29/25, 8:28
AM
A client is admitted to the hospital, and a. assess for dizziness
benazepril is prescribed for hypertension.
Which is an appropriate nursing action for
clients taking this medication?
a.assess for dizziness
b. assess for dark, tarry stools
c. administer the medication after meals
d. monitor the electroencephalogram
(EEG)
A thin 24-year-old woman who runs 10 c. vitamin d
miles each week asks the nurse for advice
about preventing osteoporosis. Which All women, except those who are pregnant or lactating, should ingest between 1000
vitamin would the nurse recommend? and 1300 mg of calcium daily; if the client is unable to ingest enough calcium in
a.vitamin e food, supplements of calcium and vitamin D are recommended. Vitamin C helps
b.vitamin b maintain
c. vitamin d cartilage and connective tissue integrity but does not help prevent osteoporosis.
d. vitamin c Vitamins E and B do not help prevent osteoporosis.
b. increased urinary frequency
A client presents to the clinic for a follow-
d. muscle twitching
up appointment after starting
e. diarrhea
pyridostigmine for management of
myasthenia gravis. Which new client
Pyridostigmine is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor. By inhibiting the enzyme that
problems are adverse effects of
breaks down acetylcholine, it increases cholinergic activity. The increased
pyridostigmine? Select all that apply. One,
cholinergic activity is responsible for the most common adverse effects of
some, or all responses may be correct.
pyridostigmine such as diarrhea and increased urinary frequency. Another adverse
a.respiratory depression
effect is muscle twitching that occurs as pyridostigmine affects the muscle
b. increased urinary frequency
weakness that is characteristic of myasthenia gravis. Respiratory depression is a
c. diplopia
clinical manifestation of myasthenia gravis that can occur due to respiratory muscle
d. muscle twitching
weakness. Weakness of eye muscles results in ptosis or diplopia in about half of
e. diarrhea
clients with myasthenia gravis.
A female client receiving cortisone therapy d. "The medication contains a hormone that causes male characteristics."
for adrenal insufficiency expresses concern
that she is developing facial hair. How Some cortisol derivatives possess 17-keto-steroid (androgenic) properties, which
would the nurse respond? result in hirsutism. Facial hair is not a sign of the illness; it results from androgens that
a."It is just another sign of adrenal are present in cortisol. Hirsutism will be a long-term problem because therapy is
insufficiency." provided on a long-term, usually lifelong, basis. The response "This is not important
b. "This side effect will disappear as long as you are feeling better" doesn't address the client's concerns.
after therapy."
c. "This is not important as long as you
are feeling better."
d. "The medication contains a hormone
that causes male characteristics."
3/24
