ATLS 10th Edition Post Test 2
Actual Questions and Answers
100% Guarantee Pass
This Exam contains:
100% Guarantee Pass.
Multiple-Choice (A–D), For Each Question.
Each Question Includes The Correct Answer
Rationale That Aligns with Atls Post Test 2025
Principles.
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1) A 6-month-old infant, held in her mother’s arms, is ejected from a vehicle
after a head-on collision with a car traveling at 64 kph (40 mph). The infant
arrives lethargic, with multiple facial injuries and severe respiratory distress.
Bag-mask ventilation is ineffective, oxygen saturation is falling, and
repeated orotracheal intubation attempts fail. What is the most appropriate
next procedure?
A. Perform needle cricothyroidotomy with jet insufflation
B. Administer heliox and racemic epinephrine
C. Perform nasotracheal intubation
D. Perform surgical cricothyroidotomy
Answer: D (Perform surgical cricothyroidotomy)
Rationale: When standard airway management (bag-mask, orotracheal
intubation) fails in a critically hypoxic patient with facial injuries, a surgical
airway is the definitive lifesaving measure. Although needle
cricothyroidotomy is often considered in very young children, the test
answer indicates that a surgical cricothyroidotomy is required urgently given
multiple failed attempts and severe distress.
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2) Which one of the following injuries is typically addressed in the secondary
survey (rather than the primary survey)?
A. Bilateral femur fractures with obvious deformity
B. Open fracture with active bleeding
, C. Partial thigh amputation
D. Unstable pelvic fracture
Answer: A (Bilateral femur fractures with obvious deformity)
Rationale: The primary survey focuses on life-threatening injuries (e.g.,
exsanguinating hemorrhage, airway compromise, tension pneumothorax).
Bilateral femur fractures, though serious, are usually identified and managed
after immediate life-threatening problems are addressed—hence they more
properly belong to the secondary survey.
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3) A 22-year-old male presents after a motorcycle crash complaining he
cannot move or feel his legs. His blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg, heart rate
70, respiratory rate 18, GCS 15, and oxygen saturation 99% on minimal
oxygen. Chest X-ray, pelvic X-ray, and FAST exam are all normal. His
extremities show no external injury. What is the best next step in
management?
A. Give 2 L of IV crystalloid and 2 units of packed RBCs
B. Give 2 L of crystalloid and vasopressors if BP does not respond
C. Give 2 L of IV crystalloid, mannitol, and IV steroids
D. Give vasopressors and proceed to laparotomy
Answer: C (2 L of IV crystalloid, mannitol, and IV steroids)
Rationale: Suspected neurogenic shock (low BP with relatively low or normal
HR) and possible spinal cord injury often lead to consideration of high-dose
steroids (though practice evolves) and adequate fluid resuscitation. Mannitol
Actual Questions and Answers
100% Guarantee Pass
This Exam contains:
100% Guarantee Pass.
Multiple-Choice (A–D), For Each Question.
Each Question Includes The Correct Answer
Rationale That Aligns with Atls Post Test 2025
Principles.
,───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
1) A 6-month-old infant, held in her mother’s arms, is ejected from a vehicle
after a head-on collision with a car traveling at 64 kph (40 mph). The infant
arrives lethargic, with multiple facial injuries and severe respiratory distress.
Bag-mask ventilation is ineffective, oxygen saturation is falling, and
repeated orotracheal intubation attempts fail. What is the most appropriate
next procedure?
A. Perform needle cricothyroidotomy with jet insufflation
B. Administer heliox and racemic epinephrine
C. Perform nasotracheal intubation
D. Perform surgical cricothyroidotomy
Answer: D (Perform surgical cricothyroidotomy)
Rationale: When standard airway management (bag-mask, orotracheal
intubation) fails in a critically hypoxic patient with facial injuries, a surgical
airway is the definitive lifesaving measure. Although needle
cricothyroidotomy is often considered in very young children, the test
answer indicates that a surgical cricothyroidotomy is required urgently given
multiple failed attempts and severe distress.
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
2) Which one of the following injuries is typically addressed in the secondary
survey (rather than the primary survey)?
A. Bilateral femur fractures with obvious deformity
B. Open fracture with active bleeding
, C. Partial thigh amputation
D. Unstable pelvic fracture
Answer: A (Bilateral femur fractures with obvious deformity)
Rationale: The primary survey focuses on life-threatening injuries (e.g.,
exsanguinating hemorrhage, airway compromise, tension pneumothorax).
Bilateral femur fractures, though serious, are usually identified and managed
after immediate life-threatening problems are addressed—hence they more
properly belong to the secondary survey.
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
3) A 22-year-old male presents after a motorcycle crash complaining he
cannot move or feel his legs. His blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg, heart rate
70, respiratory rate 18, GCS 15, and oxygen saturation 99% on minimal
oxygen. Chest X-ray, pelvic X-ray, and FAST exam are all normal. His
extremities show no external injury. What is the best next step in
management?
A. Give 2 L of IV crystalloid and 2 units of packed RBCs
B. Give 2 L of crystalloid and vasopressors if BP does not respond
C. Give 2 L of IV crystalloid, mannitol, and IV steroids
D. Give vasopressors and proceed to laparotomy
Answer: C (2 L of IV crystalloid, mannitol, and IV steroids)
Rationale: Suspected neurogenic shock (low BP with relatively low or normal
HR) and possible spinal cord injury often lead to consideration of high-dose
steroids (though practice evolves) and adequate fluid resuscitation. Mannitol
