300 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
1. A patient presents with a forward head posture. Which muscle is most
likely shortened?
A. Longus colli
B. Sternocleidomastoid
C. Rectus capitis anterior
D. Longus capitis
✅ Answer: B. Sternocleidomastoid
Explanation: Forward head posture is associated with shortening of the
sternocleidomastoid and suboccipital muscles, and lengthening of the deep neck
flexors like the longus colli and longus capitis.
2. During gait analysis, a patient exhibits foot slap during heel strike. What
is the most likely cause?
A. Weak gastrocnemius
B. Weak tibialis anterior
C. Weak peroneus longus
D. Tight Achilles tendon
✅ Answer: B. Weak tibialis anterior
Explanation: Foot slap indicates poor eccentric control of dorsiflexion at heel
strike, commonly due to weakness of the tibialis anterior.
3. A patient with a T10 spinal cord injury will have innervation of which
muscle group?
A. Quadriceps
B. Hamstrings
,C. Hip flexors
D. Intercostals
✅ Answer: D. Intercostals
Explanation: At T10, trunk control is improved due to partial innervation of
intercostal and abdominal muscles. Lower extremity muscles are not innervated
at this level.
4. A patient is post-stroke and demonstrates pusher syndrome. Which area
of the brain is most likely involved?
A. Left parietal lobe
B. Right thalamus
C. Left cerebellum
D. Right frontal lobe
✅ Answer: B. Right thalamus
Explanation: Pusher syndrome is commonly associated with damage to the
posterior lateral thalamus, typically on the right side.
5. Which of the following is the best position to test the length of the rectus
femoris?
A. Supine, hip and knee flexed
B. Supine, hip extended, knee flexed
C. Prone, knee flexed
D. Prone, knee extended
✅ Answer: C. Prone, knee flexed
Explanation: To test rectus femoris length, the hip should be extended and the
knee flexed (as in the Ely’s test), best done in the prone position.
6. Which cranial nerve is assessed with the “whisper test”?
A. CN V
B. CN VII
C. CN VIII
D. CN IX
,✅ Answer: C. CN VIII (Vestibulocochlear)
Explanation: The whisper test assesses hearing, which is controlled by the
vestibulocochlear nerve.
7. A patient post-MI is cleared for cardiac rehab. What is the initial
exercise intensity recommended?
A. 60–70% HRmax
B. 40–60% HRmax
C. 80–85% HRmax
D. 50–85% HRmax
✅ Answer: B. 40–60% HRmax
Explanation: Phase I cardiac rehab begins at low intensity, typically 40–60%
of HRmax.
8. What is the best orthosis for a patient with a complete C6 SCI?
A. KAFO
B. HKAFO
C. Tenodesis splint
D. Lofstrand crutches
✅ Answer: C. Tenodesis splint
Explanation: A tenodesis splint assists with grasp and release by capitalizing
on the passive tension of the wrist extensors, which is helpful for C6-level
injuries.
9. Which parameter is MOST affected by restrictive lung disease?
A. FEV1
B. FVC
C. TLC
D. RV
✅ Answer: C. TLC (Total Lung Capacity)
Explanation: Restrictive lung disease decreases lung volumes, especially TLC.
, 10. A patient demonstrates steppage gait. Which muscle is most likely
weak?
A. Gluteus medius
B. Gastrocnemius
C. Tibialis anterior
D. Soleus
✅ Answer: C. Tibialis anterior
Explanation: Steppage gait is due to foot drop, caused by weakness of tibialis
anterior.
11. What is the typical sensory distribution for the L5 dermatome?
A. Medial foot
B. Lateral foot
C. Dorsum of foot and big toe
D. Posterior thigh
✅ Answer: C. Dorsum of foot and big toe
Explanation: L5 supplies sensation to the dorsum of the foot, including the
great toe.
12. Which modality is contraindicated over a malignant tumor?
A. TENS
B. Ultrasound
C. Cryotherapy
D. Massage
✅ Answer: B. Ultrasound
Explanation: Ultrasound increases cellular activity and blood flow, which may
promote tumor growth and is therefore contraindicated.
13. Which exercise would be most appropriate to increase scapular upward
rotation?
A. Shoulder shrugs
B. Serratus punches
C. Rowing
D. Lat pulldowns
1. A patient presents with a forward head posture. Which muscle is most
likely shortened?
A. Longus colli
B. Sternocleidomastoid
C. Rectus capitis anterior
D. Longus capitis
✅ Answer: B. Sternocleidomastoid
Explanation: Forward head posture is associated with shortening of the
sternocleidomastoid and suboccipital muscles, and lengthening of the deep neck
flexors like the longus colli and longus capitis.
2. During gait analysis, a patient exhibits foot slap during heel strike. What
is the most likely cause?
A. Weak gastrocnemius
B. Weak tibialis anterior
C. Weak peroneus longus
D. Tight Achilles tendon
✅ Answer: B. Weak tibialis anterior
Explanation: Foot slap indicates poor eccentric control of dorsiflexion at heel
strike, commonly due to weakness of the tibialis anterior.
3. A patient with a T10 spinal cord injury will have innervation of which
muscle group?
A. Quadriceps
B. Hamstrings
,C. Hip flexors
D. Intercostals
✅ Answer: D. Intercostals
Explanation: At T10, trunk control is improved due to partial innervation of
intercostal and abdominal muscles. Lower extremity muscles are not innervated
at this level.
4. A patient is post-stroke and demonstrates pusher syndrome. Which area
of the brain is most likely involved?
A. Left parietal lobe
B. Right thalamus
C. Left cerebellum
D. Right frontal lobe
✅ Answer: B. Right thalamus
Explanation: Pusher syndrome is commonly associated with damage to the
posterior lateral thalamus, typically on the right side.
5. Which of the following is the best position to test the length of the rectus
femoris?
A. Supine, hip and knee flexed
B. Supine, hip extended, knee flexed
C. Prone, knee flexed
D. Prone, knee extended
✅ Answer: C. Prone, knee flexed
Explanation: To test rectus femoris length, the hip should be extended and the
knee flexed (as in the Ely’s test), best done in the prone position.
6. Which cranial nerve is assessed with the “whisper test”?
A. CN V
B. CN VII
C. CN VIII
D. CN IX
,✅ Answer: C. CN VIII (Vestibulocochlear)
Explanation: The whisper test assesses hearing, which is controlled by the
vestibulocochlear nerve.
7. A patient post-MI is cleared for cardiac rehab. What is the initial
exercise intensity recommended?
A. 60–70% HRmax
B. 40–60% HRmax
C. 80–85% HRmax
D. 50–85% HRmax
✅ Answer: B. 40–60% HRmax
Explanation: Phase I cardiac rehab begins at low intensity, typically 40–60%
of HRmax.
8. What is the best orthosis for a patient with a complete C6 SCI?
A. KAFO
B. HKAFO
C. Tenodesis splint
D. Lofstrand crutches
✅ Answer: C. Tenodesis splint
Explanation: A tenodesis splint assists with grasp and release by capitalizing
on the passive tension of the wrist extensors, which is helpful for C6-level
injuries.
9. Which parameter is MOST affected by restrictive lung disease?
A. FEV1
B. FVC
C. TLC
D. RV
✅ Answer: C. TLC (Total Lung Capacity)
Explanation: Restrictive lung disease decreases lung volumes, especially TLC.
, 10. A patient demonstrates steppage gait. Which muscle is most likely
weak?
A. Gluteus medius
B. Gastrocnemius
C. Tibialis anterior
D. Soleus
✅ Answer: C. Tibialis anterior
Explanation: Steppage gait is due to foot drop, caused by weakness of tibialis
anterior.
11. What is the typical sensory distribution for the L5 dermatome?
A. Medial foot
B. Lateral foot
C. Dorsum of foot and big toe
D. Posterior thigh
✅ Answer: C. Dorsum of foot and big toe
Explanation: L5 supplies sensation to the dorsum of the foot, including the
great toe.
12. Which modality is contraindicated over a malignant tumor?
A. TENS
B. Ultrasound
C. Cryotherapy
D. Massage
✅ Answer: B. Ultrasound
Explanation: Ultrasound increases cellular activity and blood flow, which may
promote tumor growth and is therefore contraindicated.
13. Which exercise would be most appropriate to increase scapular upward
rotation?
A. Shoulder shrugs
B. Serratus punches
C. Rowing
D. Lat pulldowns
