540 PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
1. A PTA is treating a patient with limited shoulder abduction due to adhesive
capsulitis. What joint mobilization technique is most appropriate?
A. Posterior glide
B. Anterior glide
C. Inferior glide
D. Superior glide
Answer: C. Inferior glide
Explanation: Inferior glides of the glenohumeral joint improve shoulder
abduction by stretching the inferior capsule.
2. Which muscle is primarily responsible for dorsiflexion of the ankle?
A. Tibialis posterior
B. Tibialis anterior
C. Gastrocnemius
D. Soleus
Answer: B. Tibialis anterior
Explanation: The tibialis anterior is the main dorsiflexor of the ankle.
3. A PTA observes that a patient leans backward when initiating a step with the
right leg. This compensatory strategy is most likely due to weakness in which
muscle?
A. Gluteus medius
B. Gluteus maximus
C. Iliopsoas
,D. Quadriceps
Answer: B. Gluteus maximus
Explanation: A backward lean compensates for weak hip extensors (gluteus
maximus) during gait.
4. Which of the following conditions is characterized by progressive
demyelination of the central nervous system?
A. Parkinson's disease
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
D. Guillain-Barré syndrome
Answer: B. Multiple sclerosis
Explanation: MS causes demyelination in the CNS, leading to varied
neurological symptoms.
5. The normal range of motion for hip extension is:
A. 0–10 degrees
B. 0–30 degrees
C. 0–45 degrees
D. 0–60 degrees
Answer: A. 0–10 degrees
Explanation: Normal hip extension ranges from 0 to 10–15 degrees.
6. What modality is most appropriate for treating acute lateral ankle sprain
within the first 48 hours?
A. Moist heat
B. Ultrasound
C. Ice pack
D. Electrical stimulation
Answer: C. Ice pack
Explanation: Cryotherapy reduces inflammation and pain in the acute phase.
7. Which nerve innervates the quadriceps femoris muscle group?
A. Femoral nerve
B. Sciatic nerve
C. Obturator nerve
,D. Tibial nerve
Answer: A. Femoral nerve
Explanation: The femoral nerve supplies the quadriceps, enabling knee
extension.
8. Which type of contraction occurs during the downward phase of a biceps
curl?
A. Concentric
B. Isometric
C. Eccentric
D. Isokinetic
Answer: C. Eccentric
Explanation: Eccentric contraction controls the lowering motion as the muscle
lengthens.
9. A PTA documents a 2+ reflex response at the patellar tendon. This indicates:
A. Hyperreflexia
B. Hyporeflexia
C. Normal reflex
D. Absent reflex
Answer: C. Normal reflex
Explanation: A 2+ reflex is considered within normal limits.
10. What gait deviation is associated with weak dorsiflexors?
A. Circumduction
B. Steppage gait
C. Trendelenburg gait
D. Scissoring gait
Answer: B. Steppage gait
Explanation: Steppage gait compensates for foot drop caused by dorsiflexor
weakness.
11. Which cranial nerve is tested when assessing facial expressions?
A. CN III
B. CN V
C. CN VII
, D. CN X
Answer: C. CN VII
Explanation: The facial nerve (CN VII) controls facial expression muscles.
12. What structure is primarily responsible for proprioception?
A. Golgi tendon organ
B. Muscle spindle
C. Ruffini endings
D. Pacinian corpuscles
Answer: B. Muscle spindle
Explanation: Muscle spindles detect changes in muscle length and provide
proprioceptive feedback.
13. What is the most appropriate assistive device for a patient with mild balance
impairments?
A. Quad cane
B. Standard walker
C. Hemi walker
D. Single-point cane
Answer: D. Single-point cane
Explanation: Single-point canes offer minimal support for patients with mild
balance issues.
14. Which motion occurs in the frontal plane?
A. Shoulder flexion
B. Elbow extension
C. Hip abduction
D. Ankle plantarflexion
Answer: C. Hip abduction
Explanation: Abduction/adduction occur in the frontal plane.
15. A PTA uses ultrasound on a patient’s shoulder. What frequency is best for
deep tissue heating (up to 5 cm)?
A. 1 MHz
B. 2 MHz
C. 3 MHz
1. A PTA is treating a patient with limited shoulder abduction due to adhesive
capsulitis. What joint mobilization technique is most appropriate?
A. Posterior glide
B. Anterior glide
C. Inferior glide
D. Superior glide
Answer: C. Inferior glide
Explanation: Inferior glides of the glenohumeral joint improve shoulder
abduction by stretching the inferior capsule.
2. Which muscle is primarily responsible for dorsiflexion of the ankle?
A. Tibialis posterior
B. Tibialis anterior
C. Gastrocnemius
D. Soleus
Answer: B. Tibialis anterior
Explanation: The tibialis anterior is the main dorsiflexor of the ankle.
3. A PTA observes that a patient leans backward when initiating a step with the
right leg. This compensatory strategy is most likely due to weakness in which
muscle?
A. Gluteus medius
B. Gluteus maximus
C. Iliopsoas
,D. Quadriceps
Answer: B. Gluteus maximus
Explanation: A backward lean compensates for weak hip extensors (gluteus
maximus) during gait.
4. Which of the following conditions is characterized by progressive
demyelination of the central nervous system?
A. Parkinson's disease
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
D. Guillain-Barré syndrome
Answer: B. Multiple sclerosis
Explanation: MS causes demyelination in the CNS, leading to varied
neurological symptoms.
5. The normal range of motion for hip extension is:
A. 0–10 degrees
B. 0–30 degrees
C. 0–45 degrees
D. 0–60 degrees
Answer: A. 0–10 degrees
Explanation: Normal hip extension ranges from 0 to 10–15 degrees.
6. What modality is most appropriate for treating acute lateral ankle sprain
within the first 48 hours?
A. Moist heat
B. Ultrasound
C. Ice pack
D. Electrical stimulation
Answer: C. Ice pack
Explanation: Cryotherapy reduces inflammation and pain in the acute phase.
7. Which nerve innervates the quadriceps femoris muscle group?
A. Femoral nerve
B. Sciatic nerve
C. Obturator nerve
,D. Tibial nerve
Answer: A. Femoral nerve
Explanation: The femoral nerve supplies the quadriceps, enabling knee
extension.
8. Which type of contraction occurs during the downward phase of a biceps
curl?
A. Concentric
B. Isometric
C. Eccentric
D. Isokinetic
Answer: C. Eccentric
Explanation: Eccentric contraction controls the lowering motion as the muscle
lengthens.
9. A PTA documents a 2+ reflex response at the patellar tendon. This indicates:
A. Hyperreflexia
B. Hyporeflexia
C. Normal reflex
D. Absent reflex
Answer: C. Normal reflex
Explanation: A 2+ reflex is considered within normal limits.
10. What gait deviation is associated with weak dorsiflexors?
A. Circumduction
B. Steppage gait
C. Trendelenburg gait
D. Scissoring gait
Answer: B. Steppage gait
Explanation: Steppage gait compensates for foot drop caused by dorsiflexor
weakness.
11. Which cranial nerve is tested when assessing facial expressions?
A. CN III
B. CN V
C. CN VII
, D. CN X
Answer: C. CN VII
Explanation: The facial nerve (CN VII) controls facial expression muscles.
12. What structure is primarily responsible for proprioception?
A. Golgi tendon organ
B. Muscle spindle
C. Ruffini endings
D. Pacinian corpuscles
Answer: B. Muscle spindle
Explanation: Muscle spindles detect changes in muscle length and provide
proprioceptive feedback.
13. What is the most appropriate assistive device for a patient with mild balance
impairments?
A. Quad cane
B. Standard walker
C. Hemi walker
D. Single-point cane
Answer: D. Single-point cane
Explanation: Single-point canes offer minimal support for patients with mild
balance issues.
14. Which motion occurs in the frontal plane?
A. Shoulder flexion
B. Elbow extension
C. Hip abduction
D. Ankle plantarflexion
Answer: C. Hip abduction
Explanation: Abduction/adduction occur in the frontal plane.
15. A PTA uses ultrasound on a patient’s shoulder. What frequency is best for
deep tissue heating (up to 5 cm)?
A. 1 MHz
B. 2 MHz
C. 3 MHz
