NUR 631 ADVANCED PATHO FINAL EXAM 2025
(ACTUAL EXAM) | ALL QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATIONS |
GRADED A+ | NEWEST VERSION | VERIFIED
ANSWERS
What factor associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac sprue)
causes an infant to bruise and bleed easily?
a. vitamin K deficiency from fat malabsorption
b. Bone marrow function depression
c. Iron, folate, and B12 deficiency anemias
d. Prescribed daily warfarin (Coumadin) ---------CORRECT ANSWER--------
---------ANS: A
Deficiencies of fat-soluble vitamins (such as vitamin K) are common in
children with gluten-sensitive enteropathy. Vitamin K malabsorption leads
to hypoprothrombinemia, causing the child to bruise and bleed easily. This
selection is the only option that accurately describes the mechanism that
causes bruising and bleeding in children diagnosed with celiac sprue.
What distinguishes kwashiorkor from marasmus?
a. All nutrients, proteins, fats, and carbohydrates are reduced in
kwashiorkor
b. Physical growth of children is stunted in kwashiorkor but not in
marasmus
c. Muscle wasting, diarrhea, low hemoglobin, and infection characterize
kwashiorkor
d. Subcutaneous fat, hepatomegaly, and fatty liver are present in
kwashiorkor. ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------ANS: D
The presence of subcutaneous fat, hepatomegaly, and fatty liver
distinguishes kwashiorkor from marasmus. These manifestations are
missing in marasmus because caloric intake is not sufficient to support fat
synthesis and storage. None of the other options accurately describes the
differences among these conditions.
,Which clinical manifestations of a urinary tract infection may be
demonstrated in an 85-year-old individual?
a. confusion and poorly localized abdominal discomfort
b. dysuria, frequency, and suprapubic pain
c. heamturia and flank pain
d. pyuria, urgency, and frequency ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------
ANS: A
Older adults with cystitis may demonstrate confusion or vague abdominal
discomfort or otherwise be asymptomatic.
With which medical diagnosis is meconium ileus often associated?
a. muscular dystrophy
b. cerebral palsy
c. cystic fibrosis
d. congenital aganglionic megacolon ---------CORRECT ANSWER-------------
----ANS: C
The detection of albumin in meconium has been used as a screening test
for cystic fibrosis. This condition is not associated with any of the other
options.
Which hormone is required for water to be reabsorbed in the distal tubule
and collecting duct?
a. antidiuretic hormone
b. aldosterone
c. cortisol
d. adrenocorticotropin hormone ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------
ANS: A
Antidiuretic hormone is required for water to be reabsorbed in the distal
tubule and collecting duct. The later, straight segment of the distal tubule
and the collecting duct are permeable to water as controlled by antidiuretic
hormone. The other options are not involved in this process.
The risk for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) decreases for premature
infants when they are born between how many weeks of gestation?
,a. 16 and 20
b. 20 and 24
c. 24 and 30
d. 30 and 36 ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------ANS: D
Surfactant is secreted into fetal airways between 30 and 36 weeks. The
other options are not true regarding the timeframe when the risk for RDS
decreases.
What is the chief predisposing factor for respiratory distress syndrome
(RDS) of the newborn?
a. low birth weight
b. alcohol consumption during pregnancy
c. premature birth
d. smoking during pregnancy ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------
ANS: C
RDS of the newborn, also known as hyaline membrane disease (HMD), is
a major cause of morbidity and mortality in premature newborns. None of
the other options are considered the chief predisposing factors for RDS.
What is the primary cause of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the
newborn?
a. immature immune system
b. small alveoli
c. surfactant deficiency
d. anemia ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------ANS: C
RDS is primarily caused by surfactant deficiency and secondarily by a
deficiency in alveolar surface area for gas exchange. None of the other
options are related to the cause of RDS.
Which antibody initially indicates a typical primary immune response?
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgE ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------ANS: B
, Typically, IgM is produced first (primary immune response), followed by IgG
against the same antigen. The other options are not involved.
The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is
mediated by which class of immunoglobulins?
a. IgE
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. T cells ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------ANS: A
Type I reactions are mediated by antigen-specific IgE and the products of
tissue mast cells (see Figure 9-1). The most common allergies (e.g., pollen
allergies) are type I reactions. In addition, most type I reactions occur
against environmental antigens and are therefore allergic. The other
options do not accurately identify the mediation factor related to hay fever.
Which type of antibody is involved in type I hypersensitivity reaction?
a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgM ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------ANS: B
Type I reactions are only mediated by antigen-specific IgE and the products
of tissue mast cells
During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, which leukocyte is
activated?
a. neutrophils
b. monocytes
c. eosinophils
d. T-lymphocytes ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------ANS C
Of the options provided, only eosinophils are activated during IgE-mediated
hypersensitivity reactions.
(ACTUAL EXAM) | ALL QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATIONS |
GRADED A+ | NEWEST VERSION | VERIFIED
ANSWERS
What factor associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac sprue)
causes an infant to bruise and bleed easily?
a. vitamin K deficiency from fat malabsorption
b. Bone marrow function depression
c. Iron, folate, and B12 deficiency anemias
d. Prescribed daily warfarin (Coumadin) ---------CORRECT ANSWER--------
---------ANS: A
Deficiencies of fat-soluble vitamins (such as vitamin K) are common in
children with gluten-sensitive enteropathy. Vitamin K malabsorption leads
to hypoprothrombinemia, causing the child to bruise and bleed easily. This
selection is the only option that accurately describes the mechanism that
causes bruising and bleeding in children diagnosed with celiac sprue.
What distinguishes kwashiorkor from marasmus?
a. All nutrients, proteins, fats, and carbohydrates are reduced in
kwashiorkor
b. Physical growth of children is stunted in kwashiorkor but not in
marasmus
c. Muscle wasting, diarrhea, low hemoglobin, and infection characterize
kwashiorkor
d. Subcutaneous fat, hepatomegaly, and fatty liver are present in
kwashiorkor. ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------ANS: D
The presence of subcutaneous fat, hepatomegaly, and fatty liver
distinguishes kwashiorkor from marasmus. These manifestations are
missing in marasmus because caloric intake is not sufficient to support fat
synthesis and storage. None of the other options accurately describes the
differences among these conditions.
,Which clinical manifestations of a urinary tract infection may be
demonstrated in an 85-year-old individual?
a. confusion and poorly localized abdominal discomfort
b. dysuria, frequency, and suprapubic pain
c. heamturia and flank pain
d. pyuria, urgency, and frequency ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------
ANS: A
Older adults with cystitis may demonstrate confusion or vague abdominal
discomfort or otherwise be asymptomatic.
With which medical diagnosis is meconium ileus often associated?
a. muscular dystrophy
b. cerebral palsy
c. cystic fibrosis
d. congenital aganglionic megacolon ---------CORRECT ANSWER-------------
----ANS: C
The detection of albumin in meconium has been used as a screening test
for cystic fibrosis. This condition is not associated with any of the other
options.
Which hormone is required for water to be reabsorbed in the distal tubule
and collecting duct?
a. antidiuretic hormone
b. aldosterone
c. cortisol
d. adrenocorticotropin hormone ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------
ANS: A
Antidiuretic hormone is required for water to be reabsorbed in the distal
tubule and collecting duct. The later, straight segment of the distal tubule
and the collecting duct are permeable to water as controlled by antidiuretic
hormone. The other options are not involved in this process.
The risk for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) decreases for premature
infants when they are born between how many weeks of gestation?
,a. 16 and 20
b. 20 and 24
c. 24 and 30
d. 30 and 36 ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------ANS: D
Surfactant is secreted into fetal airways between 30 and 36 weeks. The
other options are not true regarding the timeframe when the risk for RDS
decreases.
What is the chief predisposing factor for respiratory distress syndrome
(RDS) of the newborn?
a. low birth weight
b. alcohol consumption during pregnancy
c. premature birth
d. smoking during pregnancy ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------
ANS: C
RDS of the newborn, also known as hyaline membrane disease (HMD), is
a major cause of morbidity and mortality in premature newborns. None of
the other options are considered the chief predisposing factors for RDS.
What is the primary cause of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the
newborn?
a. immature immune system
b. small alveoli
c. surfactant deficiency
d. anemia ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------ANS: C
RDS is primarily caused by surfactant deficiency and secondarily by a
deficiency in alveolar surface area for gas exchange. None of the other
options are related to the cause of RDS.
Which antibody initially indicates a typical primary immune response?
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgE ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------ANS: B
, Typically, IgM is produced first (primary immune response), followed by IgG
against the same antigen. The other options are not involved.
The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is
mediated by which class of immunoglobulins?
a. IgE
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. T cells ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------ANS: A
Type I reactions are mediated by antigen-specific IgE and the products of
tissue mast cells (see Figure 9-1). The most common allergies (e.g., pollen
allergies) are type I reactions. In addition, most type I reactions occur
against environmental antigens and are therefore allergic. The other
options do not accurately identify the mediation factor related to hay fever.
Which type of antibody is involved in type I hypersensitivity reaction?
a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgM ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------ANS: B
Type I reactions are only mediated by antigen-specific IgE and the products
of tissue mast cells
During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, which leukocyte is
activated?
a. neutrophils
b. monocytes
c. eosinophils
d. T-lymphocytes ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------ANS C
Of the options provided, only eosinophils are activated during IgE-mediated
hypersensitivity reactions.
