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CRNI Actual Exam Questions With Reviewed 100% Correct Detailed Answers Guaranteed Pass!!

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CRNI Actual Exam Questions With Reviewed 100% Correct Detailed Answers Guaranteed Pass!! Which of the following CANNOT be fil- tered through a 0.2-micron filter? a. lipid emulsion b. 10% dextrose in water c. amino acids d. 0.9% sodium chloride The correct answer is A. A lipid emulsion is composed of particles as large as 1.2 microns; thus, this emulsion will not flow through a 0.2-micron filter. Answers B, C, and D are composed of particles smaller than 0.2 microns. A patient is admitted to the hospital with a weight loss of 10 lb over the past 2 weeks, hypotension, and poor skin turgor. The patient's urine output is 18 mL/hour, BUN is 29 mg/dL, and serum creatinine is 1.7 mg/dL. Which of the fol- lowing is the most appropriate IV solu- tion? a. 3% sodium chloride b. 5% dextrose in water c. lactated Ringer's d. 10% dextrose in water and 0.45% sodium chloride The correct answer is C. Lactated Ringersis used in patients to treat dehy- dration. Of the following medications, which should not be administered through a 0.2-micron filter? a. cephalothin sodium (Keflin) b. amphotericin B (Fungizone) c. ampicillin sodium (Omnipen-N) d. tobramycin sulfate (Nebcin) The correct answer is B. An amphotericin B molecule is too large to pass through a 0.2-micron filter. Because of its size, an amphotericin B molecule would need a filter size of at least 1.0 microns to allow passage (infusion). The drugs in answers A, C, and D will pass through a 0.2-mi- cron filter without difficulty.

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CRNI
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CRNI Actual Exam Questions With Reviewed
100% Correct Detailed Answers Guaranteed Pass!!
Which of the following CANNOT be fil- The correct answer is A. A lipid emulsion
tered through a 0.2-micron filter? is composed of particles as large as 1.2
a. lipid emulsion microns; thus, this emulsion will not flow
b. 10% dextrose in water through a 0.2-micron filter. Answers B, C,
c. amino acids and D are composed of particles smaller
d. 0.9% sodium chloride than 0.2 microns.
The correct answer is A. Resuscitation
equipment should be available because
Consider the following policies:
1% of patients show a hypersensitivity
- Resuscitation equipment should be in
to bleomycin; thus, a test dose should
the immediate vicinity.
be given. To prevent pulmonary com-
- Safe cumulative dose is 220 units/m^2
plications, bleomycin is stopped when
or a total dose of 400 units, whichever is
the cumulative dose of 220 units/m2 is
less.
reached. Answer B is incorrect because
- A test dose should be given.
it does not require a test dose, nor does
These policies are appropriate for which
it have a cumulative lifetime dose limit.
of the following antineoplastic agents?
Answer C is incorrect because the rec-
a. bleomycin sulfate (Blenoxane)
ommended total cumulative dose is 1400
b. dactinomycin (Cosmegen)
mg/ m2.
c. carmustine (BiCNU)
Answer D is incorrect because it does
d. daunorubicin HCI (Cerubidine)
not require a test dose, and its lifetime
cumulative dose is 550 mg/m^2.
Nausea, hyperreflexia, dysphagia, con-
fusion, and paresthesias are symptoms
of which of the following electrolyte dis-
turbances? The correct answer is C. The symptoms
a. hypokalemia listed indicate hypomagnesemia.
b. hyperkalemia
c. hypomagnesemia
d. hypermagnesemia
The correct skin preparation prior to re-
moval and culture of the tip of a CVAD
The correct answer is B. Answers A,
site would be
C, and D are not consistent with semi-
a. clean skin with both alcohol and io-
quantitative culture procedure. Use of
dine-containing solution
iodine-containing solutions may leave
b. clean the skin around the catheter with
residual antimicrobial action that may kill
alcohol
c. clean the skin with iodine-containing


, CRNI Actual Exam Questions With Reviewed
100% Correct Detailed Answers Guaranteed Pass!!
solution organisms on the catheter as it is with-
d. no skin preparation is necessary drawn.
Which of the following is the recommend- The correct answer is B. Quantitative
ed method of culture for purulent or semiquantitative culture is the recom-
drainage? mended method for culturing purulent
a. agar drainage. Answers A and D are culture
b. semiquantitative mediums, not culture methods. Answer C
c. semiqualitative is incorrect because it is qualitative not
d. broth culture quantitative.
A patient has just begun cyclic TNA
and completed a 12-hour infusion with-
in the last hour. The patient complains
of weakness, headache, chills tingling in
The correct answer is D. Patients receiv-
the hands and feet, and "nervousness."
ing cyclic regimens need careful monitor-
These symptoms most likely
ing for the development of rebound hypo-
indicate
glycemia after cessation of TNA solution.
a. sepsis.
b. neuropathy.
c. early thrombosis.
d. rebound hypoglycemia.

The correct answer is B. The clinical
signs of isotonic dehydration include
poor skin turgor, lethargy, oliguria, dry
skin, and weight loss. Isotonic fluid vol-
Which of the following nursing assess-
ume deficit is the most common form of
ments is indicative of isotonic dehydra-
dehydration. Hypotonic dehydration re-
tion in an infant?
sults in more severe signs and symp-
a. anorexia, edema, convulsions, and de-
toms of dehydration because more sodi-
creased body temperature
um than water is lost. Hypertonic dehy-
b. poor skin turgor, and dry, dusky skin
dration results in a greater loss of water
c. thirst, sticky mucous membranes, in-
than sodium, irritability, doughy skin, a
creased irritability, and diarrhea
high-pitched cry, and seizures. Answer A
d. scaling rash, poor skin turgor, in-
is incorrect because anorexia and ede-
creased urinary output, and weight gain
ma are not associated with isotonic de-
hydration.
Answer C is more consistent with hyper-
tonic dehydration. Answer D is incorrect


, because rash and weight gain are not
normally associated with dehydration.
The correct answer is C. An air em-
bolism is caused by the entry of air
into the vascular system. In addition to
cyanosis, symptoms include dyspnea,
chest pain, shortness of breath, hypoten-
sion, and a weak, rapid pulse. A distinc-
tive mill-wheel murmur is heard; a churn-
ing sound auscultated over the precordi-
A patient receiving an infusion through
um may be found. The air embolism is
a CVAD complains of dyspnea and is
propelled into the heart, creating an in-
cyanotic. On auscultation, there is a
tracardiac lock at the pulmonic valve that
churning sound over the pericardium.
prevents injection of blood from the right
Which of the following should the nurse
side of the heart. Air embolism is the
suspect?
a. pulmonary edema only condition from those listed that pro-
b. pneumothorax duces the churning sound on ausculta-
c. air embolism tion. Differentiating signs and symptoms
d. speed shock include pulmonary edema (hypertension
and frothy sputum); pneumothorax (sud-
den chest pain, shortness of breath
upon catheter insertion, and possibly a
crunching sound with the heartbeat upon
auscultation); and speed shock (facial
flushing, headache, medication-related
symptomology, and possible anaphylax-
is).
A patient with a fractured hip who re-
ceived 5% dextrose in water at 150 mb|
The correct answer is B. 5% dextrose
hour for 48 hours may exhibit which of
in water in this circumstance and at this
the following sets of symptoms?
rate provides an excess of free water,
a. hypotension, bradycardia, flushing,
resulting in dilutional hyponatremia. The
drowsiness
symptoms listed in answer B are indica-
b. nausea, vomiting, lethargy
tive of this imbalance. Answers A, C, and
c. thirst, muscle weakness, oliguria, con-
D are not consistent with dilutional hy-
fusion
ponatremia.
d. anorexia, polyuria, abdominal pain,
constipation
The patient benefit of narcotics given by

PCA infusion with a basal rate is that it
a. allows patient time intervals with no

, The correct answer is C. Because the
patient is exposed to low doses of nar-
cotic administered frequently, rather than
waiting for a prescribed time interval to
elapse, more consistent blood levels are
maintained and, therefore, less narcot-
ic is required. Answers A, B, and D
are incorrect because the PCA delivery
method provides a steady state of anal-
gesia, avoiding the peaks and valleys of
analgesia, sedation, and pain.
A home care patient receiving doxycy- The correct answer is C. Answer A
cline hyclate (Vibramycin Hyelate intra- is incorrect because certain cheeses
venous) should be instructed to avoid are contraindicated in combination with
which of the following? monoamine oxidase inhibitors, not doxy-
a. cheese cycline. Answers B and D are incorrect as
b. hot showers there are no restrictions or contradictions
c. sun exposure regarding hot showers or taking aceta-
d. acetaminophen minophen while on doxycycline.
A patient is admitted to the hospital with
a weight loss of 10 lb over the past
2 weeks, hypotension, and poor skin
turgor. The patient's urine output is 18
mL/hour, BUN is 29 mg/dL, and serum
creatinine is 1.7 mg/dL. Which of the fol- The correct answer is C. Lactated
lowing is the most appropriate IV solu- Ringersis used in patients to treat dehy-
tion? dration.
a. 3% sodium chloride
b. 5% dextrose in water
c. lactated Ringer's
d. 10% dextrose in water and 0.45%
sodium chloride
The correct answer is D. Structure,
process, and outcome are components
In a performance improvement program ofthe quality process as well as types
looking at CR-BSI, structure, process, of standards by which quality is mea-
sured. They must be evaluated to de-
termine compliance. An action plan can

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