1|Page
AAFP BOARD EXAM || 2025 QUESTIONS AND
100% CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED
A+|| LATEST AND COMPLETE UPDATE 2025
WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS|| GUARANTEED
A+
A 42-year-old male seeks your advice regarding smoking cessation. You
recommend a smoking cessation class, as well as varenicline (Chantix).
You caution him that the most common side effect is: ANSWER- The most
common adverse event attributed to varenicline at a dosage of 1 mg twice a day is
nausea, occurring in approximately 30%-50% of patients. Taking the drug with
food lessens the nausea.
Occlusion of the circumflex artery is most likely to cause EKG changes in:
ANSWER- Circumflex occlusion causes changes in I, AVL, and possibly V5 and
V6 as well. Left anterior descending coronary artery occlusion causes changes in
V1 to V6. Right coronary occlusion causes changes in II, III, and AVF.
You test a patient's muscle strength and find that his maximum performance
consists of the
ability to move with gravity neutralized. This qualifies as which grade of muscle
strength, on
a scale of 0 to 5? ANSWER- Muscle strength is scored on a scale of 0 to 5. The
inability to contract a muscle is scored as 0. Contraction without movement
constitutes grade 1 strength. Movement with the effect of gravity neutralized is
grade 2 strength, while movement against gravity only is grade 3 strength.
Movement against gravity plus some additional resistance indicates grade 4
strength. Normal, or grade 5, strength is demonstrated by movement
,2|Page
against substantial resistance.
The National Weight Control Registry includes individuals who have lost
substantial weight
without surgery, and have maintained the weight loss for an average of 5 years.
Which one of the following behaviors is typical of these individuals? ANSWER-
Individuals on the National Weight Control Registry typically eat a low-fat diet
rich in complex
carbohydrates, eat breakfast daily, weigh themselves at least once a week, and are
physically active for 60-90 minutes a day.
Patients with which rheumatologic condition have the highest relative risk of
internal malignancy compared to the general population? (check one)
A. Systemic scleroderma
B. Systemic lupus erythematosus
C. Sjögren's syndrome
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
E. Dermatomyositis ANSWER- In one study, 32% of patients with
dermatomyositis had cancer. The risk of cancer was highest at the time of
diagnosis, but remained high into the third year after diagnosis. The cancer types
most commonly found were ovarian, pulmonary, pancreatic, gastric, and
colorectal, as well as non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Among patients with
polymyositis, 15% developed cancer. Cancer rates in patients with rheumatoid
arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and scleroderma were above those of the
general population, but much lower
than for patients with dermatomyositis. In Sjögren's syndrome, the risk of non-
Hodgkin's lymphoma is 44 times higher than in the general population, with an
individual lifetime risk of 6%-10%.
,3|Page
A 36-year-old white male complains of episodic pain in the rectum over the past
several years. The pain occurs every 3-6 weeks and is sharp, cramp-like, and
severe. It lasts from 1 to 15 minutes. He has no other gastrointestinal complaints. A
physical examination, including a digital rectal examination and anoscopy, is
normal.
The most likely diagnosis is: ANSWER- Symptoms consistent with proctalgia
fugax occur in 13%-19% of the general population. These consist of episodic,
sudden, sharp pains in the anorectal area lasting several seconds to minutes. The
diagnosis is based on a history that fits the classic picture in a patient with a normal
examination. All the other diagnoses listed would be evident from the physical
examination, except for sacral nerve neuralgia, which would not be intermittent for
years and would be longer lasting.
what causes hairloss after a stressful event? ANSWER- The recycling of scalp
hair is an ongoing process, with the hair follicles rotating through three phases. The
actively growing anagen-phase hairs give way to the catagen phase, during which
the follicle shuts down, followed by the resting telogen phase, during which the
hair is shed. The normal ratio of anagen to telogen hairs is 90:10.
This patient most likely has a telogen effluvium, a nonscarring, shedding hair loss
that occurs when a stressful event, such as a severe illness, surgery, or pregnancy,
triggers the shift of large numbers of anagen- phase hairs to the telogen phase.
Telogen-phase hairs are easily shed.
Telogen effluvium occurs about 3 months after a triggering event. The
hair loss with telogen effluvium lasts 6 months after the removal of the stressful
trigger.
Anagen effluvium is the diffuse hair loss that occurs when chemotherapeutic
medications cause rapid destruction of anagen-phase hair. Alopecia areata, which
causes round patches of hair loss, is felt to have an autoimmune etiology. Female-
pattern hair loss affects the central portion of the scalp, and is not associated with
, 4|Page
an inciting trigger or shedding. Discoid lupus erythematosus causes a scarring
alopecia.
Which one of the following serum proteins is typically DECREASED in a
hospitalized patient with sepsis?
A. Complement C3
B. Ferritin
C. C-reactive protein (CRP)
D. Albumin
E. Fibrinogen ANSWER- The acute phase response refers to the multiple
physiologic changes that occur with tissue injury. The synthesis of acute-phase
proteins by hepatocytes is altered, leading to decreased serum levels of several of
these proteins, including albumin and transferrin. Serum levels rise for other
proteins, such as ceruloplasmin, complement proteins, haptoglobin, fibrinogen, and
C-reactive protein. Serum levels of ferritin may be extremely high in certain
conditions, but are also influenced by total-body iron stores.
A 25-year-old female is concerned about recurrent psychological and physical
symptoms that occur during the luteal phase of her menstrual cycle and resolve by
the end of menstruation. She wants help managing
these symptoms, but does not want to take additional estrogen or progesterone.
Which one of the following management strategies is supported by the best clinical
evidence? ANSWER- Randomized, controlled trials found that luteal-phase
spironolactone improved psychological and physical symptoms of premenstrual
syndrome over 2-6 months compared with placebo. Based on existing evidence,
the effectiveness is unknown for cognitive-behavioral therapy, bright light therapy,
evening primrose oil, and black cohosh.
AAFP BOARD EXAM || 2025 QUESTIONS AND
100% CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED
A+|| LATEST AND COMPLETE UPDATE 2025
WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS|| GUARANTEED
A+
A 42-year-old male seeks your advice regarding smoking cessation. You
recommend a smoking cessation class, as well as varenicline (Chantix).
You caution him that the most common side effect is: ANSWER- The most
common adverse event attributed to varenicline at a dosage of 1 mg twice a day is
nausea, occurring in approximately 30%-50% of patients. Taking the drug with
food lessens the nausea.
Occlusion of the circumflex artery is most likely to cause EKG changes in:
ANSWER- Circumflex occlusion causes changes in I, AVL, and possibly V5 and
V6 as well. Left anterior descending coronary artery occlusion causes changes in
V1 to V6. Right coronary occlusion causes changes in II, III, and AVF.
You test a patient's muscle strength and find that his maximum performance
consists of the
ability to move with gravity neutralized. This qualifies as which grade of muscle
strength, on
a scale of 0 to 5? ANSWER- Muscle strength is scored on a scale of 0 to 5. The
inability to contract a muscle is scored as 0. Contraction without movement
constitutes grade 1 strength. Movement with the effect of gravity neutralized is
grade 2 strength, while movement against gravity only is grade 3 strength.
Movement against gravity plus some additional resistance indicates grade 4
strength. Normal, or grade 5, strength is demonstrated by movement
,2|Page
against substantial resistance.
The National Weight Control Registry includes individuals who have lost
substantial weight
without surgery, and have maintained the weight loss for an average of 5 years.
Which one of the following behaviors is typical of these individuals? ANSWER-
Individuals on the National Weight Control Registry typically eat a low-fat diet
rich in complex
carbohydrates, eat breakfast daily, weigh themselves at least once a week, and are
physically active for 60-90 minutes a day.
Patients with which rheumatologic condition have the highest relative risk of
internal malignancy compared to the general population? (check one)
A. Systemic scleroderma
B. Systemic lupus erythematosus
C. Sjögren's syndrome
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
E. Dermatomyositis ANSWER- In one study, 32% of patients with
dermatomyositis had cancer. The risk of cancer was highest at the time of
diagnosis, but remained high into the third year after diagnosis. The cancer types
most commonly found were ovarian, pulmonary, pancreatic, gastric, and
colorectal, as well as non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Among patients with
polymyositis, 15% developed cancer. Cancer rates in patients with rheumatoid
arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and scleroderma were above those of the
general population, but much lower
than for patients with dermatomyositis. In Sjögren's syndrome, the risk of non-
Hodgkin's lymphoma is 44 times higher than in the general population, with an
individual lifetime risk of 6%-10%.
,3|Page
A 36-year-old white male complains of episodic pain in the rectum over the past
several years. The pain occurs every 3-6 weeks and is sharp, cramp-like, and
severe. It lasts from 1 to 15 minutes. He has no other gastrointestinal complaints. A
physical examination, including a digital rectal examination and anoscopy, is
normal.
The most likely diagnosis is: ANSWER- Symptoms consistent with proctalgia
fugax occur in 13%-19% of the general population. These consist of episodic,
sudden, sharp pains in the anorectal area lasting several seconds to minutes. The
diagnosis is based on a history that fits the classic picture in a patient with a normal
examination. All the other diagnoses listed would be evident from the physical
examination, except for sacral nerve neuralgia, which would not be intermittent for
years and would be longer lasting.
what causes hairloss after a stressful event? ANSWER- The recycling of scalp
hair is an ongoing process, with the hair follicles rotating through three phases. The
actively growing anagen-phase hairs give way to the catagen phase, during which
the follicle shuts down, followed by the resting telogen phase, during which the
hair is shed. The normal ratio of anagen to telogen hairs is 90:10.
This patient most likely has a telogen effluvium, a nonscarring, shedding hair loss
that occurs when a stressful event, such as a severe illness, surgery, or pregnancy,
triggers the shift of large numbers of anagen- phase hairs to the telogen phase.
Telogen-phase hairs are easily shed.
Telogen effluvium occurs about 3 months after a triggering event. The
hair loss with telogen effluvium lasts 6 months after the removal of the stressful
trigger.
Anagen effluvium is the diffuse hair loss that occurs when chemotherapeutic
medications cause rapid destruction of anagen-phase hair. Alopecia areata, which
causes round patches of hair loss, is felt to have an autoimmune etiology. Female-
pattern hair loss affects the central portion of the scalp, and is not associated with
, 4|Page
an inciting trigger or shedding. Discoid lupus erythematosus causes a scarring
alopecia.
Which one of the following serum proteins is typically DECREASED in a
hospitalized patient with sepsis?
A. Complement C3
B. Ferritin
C. C-reactive protein (CRP)
D. Albumin
E. Fibrinogen ANSWER- The acute phase response refers to the multiple
physiologic changes that occur with tissue injury. The synthesis of acute-phase
proteins by hepatocytes is altered, leading to decreased serum levels of several of
these proteins, including albumin and transferrin. Serum levels rise for other
proteins, such as ceruloplasmin, complement proteins, haptoglobin, fibrinogen, and
C-reactive protein. Serum levels of ferritin may be extremely high in certain
conditions, but are also influenced by total-body iron stores.
A 25-year-old female is concerned about recurrent psychological and physical
symptoms that occur during the luteal phase of her menstrual cycle and resolve by
the end of menstruation. She wants help managing
these symptoms, but does not want to take additional estrogen or progesterone.
Which one of the following management strategies is supported by the best clinical
evidence? ANSWER- Randomized, controlled trials found that luteal-phase
spironolactone improved psychological and physical symptoms of premenstrual
syndrome over 2-6 months compared with placebo. Based on existing evidence,
the effectiveness is unknown for cognitive-behavioral therapy, bright light therapy,
evening primrose oil, and black cohosh.
