PA-Easy Emergency Medicine Exam Questions with Correct Answers

PA-Easy Emergency Medicine Exam Questions with Correct Answers .A 1-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents, who state that the child refuses to walk or crawl and begins crying when they stand him. He seems calm while lying on the examination table. Vitals are as follows: Temp: 38°C, HR: 70, RR: 15. Bruising is noted in several places. His parents deny trauma, but have noticed that he bruises easily. What other physical finding would you expect? A Conjunctival hemorrhages secondary to shaken baby syndrome B Pain response over the wrists secondary to passive range of motion C Pain response with passive range of motion to the hip secondary to slipped epiphysis D Pharyngitis and sand paper rash secondary to a staph infection E Swelling and warmth over the knee secondary to hemarthroses - ANSWER-*The Correct Answer is: E This patient has hemophilia A. Hemarthroses usually occur when an affected child begins to walk. Due to his hemophilia, easy bruising can occur. Hemarthroses can cause low-grade fevers without infection being present*, so choice D is incorrect. Wrist joints are less involved then knees, ankles, and elbows. .A 1-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents, who state that the child refuses to walk or crawl and begins crying when they stand him. Swelling to his right knee is noted; it is also warm to the touch and pain response is noted. His parents state that it seemed to start a couple of days ago and has gotten worse. They don't recall a trauma, but state that he seems to bruise easily. The child's mother states that she also bruises easily. Vitals are as follows: Temp: 38.0°C, HR: 70, RR: 15. What laboratory finding would you expect? A Prolonged aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) B Prolonged bleeding time C Prolonged PT (prothrombin time) D Prolonged thrombin clotting time E Thrombocytopenia - ANSWER-*The Correct Answer is: A This patient has hemophilia A. Patients with severe hemophilia A have a prolonged aPTT;* all of the other tests should be within the normal range. .A 14-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with acute scrotal pain and vomiting for the past 2 hours. His left testicle is in extreme pain and he states the pain started while playing basketball in gym class. On physical exam of the affected testicle, which of the following findings would suggest testicular torsion? A Transillumination B Positive Prehn's sign C Positive cremasteric reflex D Abnormal transverse lie E Mass of enlarged veins palpated - ANSWER-*The Correct Answer is: D Testicular torsion is most common between ages 12-18 with the classic presentation of abrupt and severe onset of pain with nausea/vomiting. The testicle on physical examination is painful, swollen, high-riding, tender, and has an abnormal transverse lie (D).* Transillumination (A) is when light is placed behind the scrotum and fluid is illuminated in cases of hydroceles. Prehn's sign (B) is pain relief with elevating the scrotum and is positive in cases of epididymitis. The cremasteric reflex (C) is a normal finding that causes elevation of the testis on the ipsilateral side when the inner aspect of the inner thigh is stroked. The absence of cremasteric reflex on the affected side is often found in acute torsion. A mass of enlarged veins (E), or "bag of worms," is a finding associated with a varicocele. .A 14-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with acute scrotal pain and vomiting for the past 2 hours. His left testicle is in extreme pain and he states the pain started while playing basketball in gym class. Which diagnosis is highest on your differential in regards to his clinical presentation? A Epididymitis B Hydrocele C Testicular torsion D Varicocele E Intrascrotal tumor - ANSWER-*The Correct Answer is: C Testicular torsion (C) is most common between ages 12-18 with the classic presentation of abrupt and severe onset of pain with nausea/vomiting.* The most common cause of painless scrotal swelling in children is a hydrocele (B). Epididymitis (A) usually has an insidious onset, commonly presenting with urinary frequency, dysuria, or fever. Varicoceles (D) and intrascrotal tumors (E) usually present as painless scrotal edema. .A 14-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with his parents. He has a history of type 1 diabetes, and has had bronchitis for the last few days. He is now presenting with difficulty breathing, worsening fatigue, polydipsia, and polyuria. His last fingerstick glucose at home this morning was 350 mg/dL. Which of the following patterns of breathing are characteristic of this complication of diabetes? A Cheyne stokes respiration B Bradypnea C Biot breathing D Kussmaul breathing E Painful respiration - ANSWER-The correct choice is D, Kussmaul breathing, which is deep regular breathing or hyperpnea. It can be seen as a compensatory action of metabolic acidosis and hypoxia. Choice A, Cheyne-Stokes respiration, is a waxing and waning pattern of rate and volume that includes periods of apnea. This can be seen in patients at high altitudes, and with severe left sided heart failure or neurologic disease. Choice B, bradypnea, is noted with a slower than usual respiratory rate and can be seen with use of CNS depressant drugs, uremia, or structural intracranial lesion. Choice C, Biot breathing, is an uncommon variant of Cheyne-Stokes respiration, with periods of apnea alternating with a series of equal breaths that end abruptly. It can be seen in patients with meningitis. Choice E, painful respiration, is relatively normal in pattern, but interrupted by pain during breathing from such disorders as pleurisy, fractured ribs, or subphrenic inflammation. .A 15-year-old boy suddenly collapses on the basketball court; his sports physical conducted at the beginning of the year did not elicit any abnormal findings. Basic life support initiated at the scene, however, is unsuccessful in resuscitation. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of his sudden death? A mitral valve prolapse B surgically corrected aortic stenosis C hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D rheumatic heart disease - ANSWER-The Correct Answer is: C Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy in adolescence is typically due to familial hypertrophic cardiomyopathy with an incidence of 1:500. Many patients are asymptomatic until a sporting event, which may cause symptoms, specifically sudden cardiac death. Examination may demonstrate a palpable or audible S 4 , an LV (left ventricular) heave, systolic ejection murmur (may need to stimulate cardiac activity), and/or a left precordial bulge. Echocardiography is the gold standard for diagnosis but family history should be assessed. Stress testing is indicated to assess for ischemia and arrhythmias. Strenuous activities are prohibited for these patients. The other cardiomyopathies (dilated and restrictive) are next but are not as common. Congenital structural abnormalities of the coronary arteries are the next most common cause. Valvular disorders, including surgically repaired aortic stenosis, are typically not causes of sudden death, but these patients should be screened for symptoms and stress tested as necessary. .A 16-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after reportedly ingesting "a bottle of aspirin." Vital signs are temperature 37.8°C oral; pulse 94/min; respirations 30/min; blood pressure 100/68 mm Hg. What would you expect the blood gases to show that would confirm she had swallowed the aspirin? A anion gap metabolic acidosis with respiratory acidosis B nonanion gap metabolic acidosis with respiratory alkalosis C anion gap metabolic acidosis with respiratory alkalosis D nonanion gap metabolic acidosis with respiratory acidosis - ANSWER-*The Correct Answer is: C* An acute salicylate overdose (greater than 150 mg/kg) will produce symptoms of salicylate intoxication. Chronic salicylate intoxication occurs with ingestion of greater than 100 mg/kg/day for at least 2 days. Salicylates affect most organ systems, leading to various metabolic abnormalities. Because salicylates are a gastric irritant, symptoms of vomiting and diarrhea occur soon after the overdose, which may contribute to the development of dehydration. *Salicylates stimulate the respiratory center leading to hyperventilation and hyperpnea resulting in respiratory alkalosis and compensatory alkaluria. A characteristic feature of salicylate intoxication is the coexistence of a respiratory alkalosis with a widened anion gap metabolic acidosis.* .A 16-year-old high school boy presents to the emergency department 4 hours after sustaining an abrasion to his knee after a fall while rollerblading on the school playground. His school immunization record reveals that his last diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis (DTaP) booster was administered at age 4. In this situation, which of the following is the MOST appropriate plan? A administer tetanus toxoid B administer adult tetanus and diphtheria toxoid (Td) C administer diphtheria, tetanus toxoid, and acellular pertussis (Tdap) vaccine D administer tetanus immune globulin - ANSWER-The Correct Answer is: C Generalized tetanus (lockjaw) is a neurologic disease caused by Clostridium tetani. Although any open wound is a potential source for contamination with C tetani, those with dirt, soil, feces, or saliva are at increased risk. Tetanus-prone wounds contain devitalized tissue, especially those caused by punctures, frostbite, crush injury, or burns. Recommendations for tetanus prophylaxis in a child with a laceration or abrasion depend upon the number of previous vaccinations, occurrence of last booster, type of wound (clean or tetanus-prone), and age of child. In this case, the patient is older than 7 years and had all of his previous immunizations; however, his most recent booster was greater than 10 years ago. Thus, he should receive an adult-type diphtheria and tetanus toxoid with acellular pertussis. In most cases, when tetanus toxoid is required for wound prophylaxis in a child older than 7 years, the Td instead of tetanus toxoid alone is recommended so that diphtheria immunity is maintained. If tetanus immunization is not up to date at the time of wound treatment, then the immunization series should be completed according to the primary immunization schedule. If a child is younger than 7 years, then the diphtheria, tetanus, acellular pertussis (DTaP) booster is indicated, unless there is a contraindication for pertussis, in which case the diphtheria and tetanus (DT) booster should be administered. Tetanus immune globulin (TIG) is recommended for treatment of tetanus. Under special circumstances, a patient infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) with a tetanus-prone wound should also receive TIG in addition to the prophylactic vaccine. (Ogle and Anderson, 2009, pp. ; Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 2009a) Ogle JW , Anderson MS. Infections: bacterial & spiroc .A 16-year-old male soccer player is complaining of pain to the right foot that has been getting progressively worse for the last 2 months. He states it hurts the most when he has all of his weight on his right foot as he plants to kick the ball. Most of the pain appears to be on weight bearing. You are concerned that this patient may be developing a stress fracture. Based on the patient's history and patient presentations, which bone is the most affected by stress fractures in the foot? A Calcaneus B Fifth metatarsal C First metatarsal D Second metatarsal E Talus - ANSWER-*The Correct Answer is: D Any bone that is exposed to repetitive stress can have a stress fracture, but the long and thin metatarsal bones of the foot are the most commonly affected bones. Of the metatarsals, the second metatarsal has the highest number of stress fractures.* These weight bearing bones can be particularly vulnerable to stress fracture if the patient is involved in long distance running, especially if he/she is wearing improper footwear for that activity or footwear that has lost most of its shock absorbing abilities. Some young female athletes may be training so hard that they become amenorrheic which can contribute to osteopenia resulting in weaker bones. Older patients with osteoporosis will also have a higher risk of stress fracture. Initially stress fractures of the metatarsals may present with a small area of localized pain and the dorsal forefoot may demonstrate a fairly diffuse area of swelling. If the stress fracture is not treated early, some patients will experience an audible pop or crack as the incomplete stress fractures progresses to a complete break. All types of fractures occur more easily in long thin bones like the metatarsals, than thicker bones like the calcaneus and talus. .A 16-year-old male was hit on the left side of his face by a line drive baseball. Marked swelling is noted externally to the left eye. There was no loss of consciousness. Upon physical exam, he complains of diplopia during extraocular motion testing. Enophthalmos is noted, as well as decreased sensation of the left cheek. Plain x-rays of the face demonstrate an air-fluid level in the left maxillary sinus, and a fracture of the orbit. Based on this information, what is the most likely diagnosis? A Zygomatic arch fracture B Orbital blowout fracture C Le Fort I fracture D Le Fort II fracture E Le Fort III fracture - ANSWER-The Correct Answer is: B Diplopia is common in an orbital blow out fracture, due to entrapment of the inferior rectus and inferior oblique muscles. Loss of infraorbital sensation occurs from disruption or swelling of the infraorbital nerve. A Le Fort I fracture describes a transverse fracture separating the body of the maxilla from the pterygoid plate and nasal septum. A Le Fort II fracture describes a pyramidal through the central maxilla and hard palate. Movement of the hard palate and nose occurs, but not the eyes. A Le Fort III fracture describes a craniofacial disjunction, wherein the entire face is separated from the skull due to fractures of the frontozygomatic suture line, across the orbit and through the base of the nose, and ethmoids. The entire face shifts, with the globes held in place only by the optic nerve. .A 17-year-old boy high school wrestler is brought into the emergency department after he collapsed at a wrestling match. He spent time fully clothed in a hot sauna prior to the match to try to "make weight." Labs are ordered, and results come back as follows: Which IV fluid regimen would most effectively treat this patient's hypernatremia? A quarter normal (hypotonic) saline B half-normal saline C isotonic (normal) saline D dextrose 5% in water .A 1-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents, who state that the child refuses to walk or crawl and begins crying when they stand him. He seems calm while lying on the examination table. Vitals are as follows: Temp: 38°C, HR: 70, RR: 15. Bruising is noted in several places. His parents deny trauma, but have noticed that he bruises easily. What other physical finding would you expect? A Conjunctival hemorrhages secondary to shaken baby syndrome B Pain response over the wrists secondary to passive range of motion C Pain response with passive range of motion to the hip secondary to slipped epiphysis D Pharyngitis and sand paper rash secondary to a staph infection E Swelling and warmth over the knee secondary to hemarthroses - ANSWER-*The Correct Answer is: E This patient has hemophilia A. Hemarthroses usually occur when an affected child begins to walk. Due to his hemophilia, easy bruising can occur. Hemarthroses can cause low-grade fevers without infection being present*, so choice D is incorrect. Wrist joints are less involved then knees, ankles, and elbows. .A 1-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents, who state that the child refuses to walk or crawl and begins crying when they stand him. Swelling to his right knee is noted; it is also warm to the touch and pain response is noted. His parents state that it seemed to start a couple of days ago and has gotten worse. They don't recall a trauma, but state that he seems to bruise easily. The child's mother states that she also bruises easily. Vitals are as follows: Temp: 38.0°C, HR: 70, RR: 15. What laboratory finding would you expect? A Prolonged aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) B Prolonged bleeding time C Prolonged PT (prothrombin time) D Prolonged thrombin clotting time E Thrombocytopenia - ANSWER-*The Correct Answer is: A This patient has hemophilia A. Patients with severe hemophilia A have a prolonged aPTT;* all of the other tests should be within the normal range. .A 14-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with acute scrotal pain and vomiting for the past 2 hours. His left testicle is in extreme pain and he states the pain started while playing basketball in gym class. On physical exam of the affected testicle, which of the following findings would suggest testicular torsion? A Transillumination B Positive Prehn's sign C Positive cremasteric reflex D Abnormal transverse lie E Mass of enlarged veins palpated - ANSWER-*The Correct Answer is: D Testicular torsion is most common between ages 12-18 with the classic presentation of abrupt and severe onset of pain with nausea/vomiting. The testicle on physical examination is painful, swollen, high-riding, tender, and has an abnormal transverse lie (D).* Transillumination (A) is when light is placed behind the scrotum and fluid is illuminated in cases of hydroceles. Prehn's sign (B) is pain relief with elevating the scrotum and is positive in cases of epididymitis. The cremasteric reflex (C) is a normal finding that causes elevation of the testis on the ipsilateral side when the inner aspect of the inner thigh is stroked. The absence of cremasteric reflex on the affected side is often found in acute torsion. A mass of enlarged veins (E), or "bag of worms," is a finding associated with a varicocele. .A 14-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with acute scrotal pain and vomiting for the past 2 hours. His left testicle is in extreme pain and he states the pain started while playing basketball in gym class. Which diagnosis is highest on your differential in regards to his clinical presentation? A Epididymitis B Hydrocele C Testicular torsion D Varicocele E Intrascrotal tumor - ANSWER-*The Correct Answer is: C Testicular torsion (C) is most common between ages 12-18 with the classic presentation of abrupt and severe onset of pain with nausea/vomiting.* The most common cause of painless scrotal swelling in children is a hydrocele (B). Epididymitis (A) usually has an insidious onset, commonly presenting with urinary frequency, dysuria, or fever. Varicoceles (D) and intrascrotal tumors (E) usually present as painless scrotal edema. .A 14-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with his parents. He has a history of type 1 diabetes, and has had bronchitis for the last few days. He is now presenting with difficulty breathing, worsening fatigue, polydipsia, and polyuria. His last fingerstick glucose at home this morning was 350 mg/dL. Which of the following patterns of breathing are characteristic of this complication of diabetes? A Cheyne stokes respiration B Bradypnea C Biot breathing D Kussmaul breathing E Painful respiration - ANSWER-The correct choice is D, Kussmaul breathing, which is deep regular breathing or hyperpnea. It can be seen as a compensatory action of metabolic acidosis and hypoxia. Choice A, Cheyne-Stokes respiration, is a waxing and waning pattern of rate and volume that includes periods of apnea. This can be seen in patients at high altitudes, and with severe left sided heart failure or neurologic disease. Choice B, bradypnea, is noted with a slower than usual respiratory rate and can be seen with use of CNS depressant drugs, uremia, or structural intracranial lesion. Choice C, Biot breathing, is an uncommon variant of Cheyne-Stokes respiration, with periods of apnea alternating with a series of equal breaths that end abruptly. It can be seen in patients with meningitis. Choice E, painful respiration, is relatively normal in pattern, but interrupted by pain during breathing from such disorders as pleurisy, fractured ribs, or subphrenic inflammation. .A 15-year-old boy suddenly collapses on the basketball court; his sports physical conducted at the beginning of the year did not elicit any abnormal findings. Basic life support initiated at the scene, however, is unsuccessful in resuscitation. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of his sudden death? A mitral valve prolapse B surgically corrected aortic stenosis C hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D rheumatic heart disease - ANSWER-The Correct Answer is: C Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy in adolescence is typically due to familial hypertrophic cardiomyopathy with an incidence of 1:500. Many patients are asymptomatic until a sporting event, which may cause symptoms, specifically sudden cardiac death. Examination may demonstrate a palpable or audible S 4 , an LV (left ventricular) heave, systolic ejection murmur (may need to stimulate cardiac activity), and/or a left precordial bulge. Echocardiography is the gold standard for diagnosis but family history should be assessed. Stress testing is indicated to assess for ischemia and arrhythmias. Strenuous activities are prohibited for these patients. The other cardiomyopathies (dilated and restrictive) are next but are not as common. Congenital structural abnormalities of the coronary arteries are the next most common cause. Valvular disorders, including surgically repaired aortic stenosis, are typically not causes of sudden death, but these patients should be screened for symptoms and stress tested as necessary. .A 16-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after reportedly ingesting "a bottle of aspirin." Vital signs are temperature 37.8°C oral; pulse 94/min; respirations 30/min; blood pressure 100/68 mm Hg. What would you expect the blood gases to show that would confirm she had swallowed the aspirin? A anion gap metabolic acidosis with respiratory acidosis B nonanion gap metabolic acidosis with respiratory alkalosis C anion gap metabolic acidosis with respiratory alkalosis D nonanion gap metabolic acidosis with respiratory acidosis - ANSWER-*The Correct Answer is: C* An acute salicylate overdose (greater than 150 mg/kg) will produce symptoms of salicylate intoxication. Chronic salicylate intoxication occurs with ingestion of greater than 100 mg/kg/day for at least 2 days. Salicylates affect most organ systems, leading to various metabolic abnormalities. Because salicylates are a gastric irritant, symptoms of vomiting and diarrhea occur soon after the overdose, which may contribute to the development of dehydration. *Salicylates stimulate the respiratory center leading to hyperventilation and hyperpnea resulting in respiratory alkalosis and compensatory alkaluria. A characteristic feature of salicylate intoxication is the coexistence of a respiratory alkalosis with a widened anion gap metabolic acidosis.* .A 16-year-old high school boy presents to the emergency department 4 hours after sustaining an abrasion to his knee after a fall while rollerblading on the school playground. His school immunization record reveals that his last diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis (DTaP) booster was administered at age 4. In this situation, which of the following is the MOST appropriate plan? A administer tetanus toxoid B administer adult tetanus and diphtheria toxoid (Td) C administer diphtheria, tetanus toxoid, and acellular pertussis (Tdap) vaccine D administer tetanus immune globulin - ANSWER-The Correct Answer is: C Generalized tetanus (lockjaw) is a neurologic disease caused by Clostridium tetani. Although any open wound is a potential source for contamination with C tetani, those with dirt, soil, feces, or saliva are at increased risk. Tetanus-prone wounds contain devitalized tissue, especially those caused by punctures, frostbite, crush injury, or burns. Recommendations for tetanus prophylaxis in a child with a laceration or abrasion depend upon the number of previous vaccinations, occurrence of last booster, type of wound (clean or tetanus-prone), and age of child. In this case, the patient is older than 7 years and had all of his previous immunizations; however, his most recent booster was greater than 10 years ago. Thus, he should receive an adult-type diphtheria and tetanus toxoid with acellular pertussis. In most cases, when tetanus toxoid is required for wound prophylaxis in a child older than 7 years, the Td instead of tetanus toxoid alone is recommended so that diphtheria immunity is maintained. If tetanus immunization is not up to date at the time of wound treatment, then the immunization series should be completed according to the primary immunization schedule. If a child is younger than 7 years, then the diphtheria, tetanus, acellular pertussis (DTaP) booster is indicated, unless there is a contraindication for pertussis, in which case the diphtheria and tetanus (DT) booster should be administered. Tetanus immune globulin (TIG) is recommended for treatment of tetanus. Under special circumstances, a patient infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) with a tetanus-prone wound should also receive TIG in addition to the prophylactic vaccine. (Ogle and Anderson, 2009, pp. ; Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 2009a) Ogle JW , Anderson MS. Infections: bacterial & spiroc .A 16-year-old male soccer player is complaining of pain to the right foot that has been getting progressively worse for the last 2 months. He states it hurts the most when he has all of his weight on his right foot as he plants to kick the ball. Most of the pain appears to be on weight bearing. You are concerned that this patient may be developing a stress fracture. Based on the patient's history and patient presentations, which bone is the most affected by stress fractures in the foot? A Calcaneus B Fifth metatarsal C First metatarsal D Second metatarsal E Talus - ANSWER-*The Correct Answer is: D Any bone that is exposed to repetitive stress can have a stress fracture, but the long and thin metatarsal bones of the foot are the most commonly affected bones. Of the metatarsals, the second metatarsal has the highest number of stress fractures.* These weight bearing bones can be particularly vulnerable to stress fracture if the patient is involved in long distance running, especially if he/she is wearing improper footwear for that activity or footwear that has lost most of its shock absorbing abilities. Some young female athletes may be training so hard that they become amenorrheic which can contribute to osteopenia resulting in weaker bones. Older patients with osteoporosis will also have a higher risk of stress fracture. Initially stress fractures of the metatarsals may present with a small area of localized pain and the dorsal forefoot may demonstrate a fairly diffuse area of swelling. If the stress fracture is not treated early, some patients will experience an audible pop or crack as the incomplete stress fractures progresses to a complete break. All types of fractures occur more easily in long thin bones like the metatarsals, than thicker bones like the calcaneus and talus. .A 16-year-old male was hit on the left side of his face by a line drive baseball. Marked swelling is noted externally to the left eye. There was no loss of consciousness. Upon physical exam, he complains of diplopia during extraocular motion testing. Enophthalmos is noted, as well as decreased sensation of the left cheek. Plain x-rays of the face demonstrate an air-fluid level in the left maxillary sinus, and a fracture of the orbit. Based on this information, what is the most likely diagnosis? A Zygomatic arch fracture B Orbital blowout fracture C Le Fort I fracture D Le Fort II fracture E Le Fort III fracture - ANSWER-The Correct Answer is: B Diplopia is common in an orbital blow out fracture, due to entrapment of the inferior rectus and inferior oblique muscles. Loss of infraorbital sensation occurs from disruption or swelling of the infraorbital nerve. A Le Fort I fracture describes a transverse fracture separating the body of the maxilla from the pterygoid plate and nasal septum. A Le Fort II fracture describes a pyramidal through the central maxilla and hard palate. Movement of the hard palate and nose occurs, but not the eyes. A Le Fort III fracture describes a craniofacial disjunction, wherein the entire face is separated from the skull due to fractures of the frontozygomatic suture line, across the orbit and through the base of the nose, and ethmoids. The entire face shifts, with the globes held in place only by the optic nerve. .A 17-year-old boy high school wrestler is brought into the emergency department after he collapsed at a wrestling match. He spent time fully clothed in a hot sauna prior to the match to try to "make weight." Labs are ordered, and results come back as follows: Which IV fluid regimen would most effectively treat this patient's hypernatremia? A quarter normal (hypotonic) saline B half-normal saline C isotonic (normal) saline D dextrose 5% in water