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CEA EXAM NEWEST 2025 ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 250 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+BRAND NEW!! (1).pdf

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CEA EXAM NEWEST 2025 ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 250 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+BRAND NEW!! (1).pdf

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CEA EXAM 2025 SPRING – m m m m




SUMMER EXAM PRACTICE 300+ QUESTION m m m m




S AND ANSWERS WITH RATIONALE GRAD
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ED A+ m




The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade fever. Chest X-
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ray on PA view shows a left lower chest area of consolidation adjacent to the left
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border of the heart approximately 2 rib spaces above the costophrenic angle. The l
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ateral x- m


mray view shows this lesion absent of the window posterior to the cardiac silhouett
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e. Which is the most likely location of this area of focal consolidation?
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*Left upper lobe apex
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*Right middle lobe m m




*Left upper lobe lingula
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*Left lower lobem m




Left upper lobe lingula
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Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question precisely. If the card
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iac margin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right middle lo
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be or left upper lobe lingula.
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The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a trademark of wh
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ich of the following diagnoses?
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Diastolic dysfunction m

,Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of the diagnosis of dia
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stolic dysfunction and is common in patients with thickened hypertrophic myocard
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ium.




An otherwise healthy African American adult male has been diagnosed with hype
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rtension. He has been restricting his salt intake, eating a DASH (Dietary Approac
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hes to Stop Hypertension) diet, and exercising more, but his blood pressure is still
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melevated. Which is the BEST medication to prescribe him?
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Calcium channel blocker m m




Rationale: African American patients per JNC8 Hypertension Guidelines should b
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e managed with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine (N
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orvasc) as first line management therapy for hypertension not at goal with DASH
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and lifestyle modifications.
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Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending aortic aneurysm. Which
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medical imaging is considered standard of care for serial surveillance?
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CT angiography of the chest
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Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard of care for measuring vascu
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lar luminal dimensions with contrast. CT PE protocol is not timed properly for the
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maorta (it's timed for the pulmonary artery). Although a plain film is able to catch l
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arge aneurysms at times, they are not able to provide multi-
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axis reconstruction needed to accurately measure the size. Transesophageal echo i
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s not needed to accurately measure the aorta and requires the patient to undergo se
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dation which is unnecessary.
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,Which of the following medications does not cause beta 1 stimulation? phenylephr
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ine
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1 receptors. The remaining three al
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l have beta receptor activity.
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A 50-year-
m


old woman with a history of hypertension presents with dyspnea on exertion a
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nd orthopnea. On examination, she has jugular venous distention and bilateral
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crackles on lung auscultation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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Congestive heart failure m m




Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate response is congestive heart
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mfailure as it is signifying both a right ventricular back up with jugular venous exte
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nsion and crackles on lung assault, which are suggestive of left ventricular back u
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p. it is possible the patient may have an acute myocardial infarction that precipitat
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ed this, however, a patient has not described that, rather is only describing dyspnea
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mon exertion and orthopnea, which both speak to a state of fluid overload.
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The only appropriate response of these available is congestive heart failure.
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Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with reduced ejection fraction)
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mwith an ejection fraction of 40% who is also not on optimal medical therapy has
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been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction this admission and received emergent
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mplacement of a drug- m m m


eluting stent to the left anterior descending artery. As the medical home who will
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manage this patient after discharge, which medication strategy would you expect t
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o be a priority in the patient's care?
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Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF is less tha
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n 35%
m

, Rationale: The patient should have a protective mechanism such as an implantabl
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e automated cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if the EF is less than 3
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5% due to the increased risk of sudden cardiac death with low EF states. Since m
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ost patients are not eligible for 90 days for an AICD in this state, optimizing their
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medication regimen and repeating an echo in 2-3 months to re-
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evaluate for improvement in their EF is required by most insurance companies. A
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baseline echo is needed at discharge to provide a baseline for improvement vs thei
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r repeat echo in 2-3 months.
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Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months minimum post-MI.
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A Holter monitor does not provide any conceivable benefit for this patient as prese
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nted.




Which of the following people groups represent the least risk of cardiac disease? C
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aucasians
Rationale: Statistically African Americans, Native Hawaiians, and American India
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ns are at at increased risk of cardiac disease due to higher rates of hypertension, di
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abetes, and obesity than Caucasians.
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A 65-year-old woman presents for a follow-
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up examination. She is a smoker, and her hypertension is now adequately controll
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ed with medication. Her mother died at age 40 from a heart attack. The fasting lip
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id profile shows cholesterol = 240 mg/dL, HDL = 30, and LDL = 200. In addition
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mto starting therapeutic lifestyle changes, the nurse practitioner should start the pat
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ient on: m




a statin drug.
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Rationale: Bile acid sequestrants and cholesterol absorption inhibitors may be usef
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ul in reducing ASVD risk, but for a patient who is an active smoker with
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