ANSWERS 100% ACCURATE
A 52-year-old male presents complaining of urinary frequency, with hesitancy, and
nocturia for the past few months. During his physical examination, you note a
nontender, non-enlarged prostate with an isolated right posterior lobe nodule. Which of
the following options is most appropriate?
A. Order a serum acid phosphatase level
B. Initiate prazosin and schedule a follow-up appointment in 6 weeks
C. Refer the patient for an ultrasound of the prostate and order a PSA level
D. Reassure the patient and schedule a follow-up appointment in six months
E. Initiate norfloxacin therapy for 7 days and schedule follow-up in two weeks -
ANSWER-C. Refer the patient and schedule a follow-up appointment in six months.
Refer the patient for an ultrasound of the prostate and order a PSA level.
This patient has an isolated nodule of the prostate gland — cancer until proven
otherwise. You should order an ultrasound and a PSA. BPH will present as a diffuse
enlargement, and not a discrete nodule.
Which term is used to describe the characteristic concave or "spoon-shaped" nails of
iron deficiency anemia?
A. leukonychia
B. koilonychias
C. clubbing
D. onycholysis
E. paronychia - ANSWER-B. koilonychias
This patient has a respiratory rate of 52. If she is ventilating, she is blowing off C02 (an
acid) and would be alkalotic and should have a low C02. A pH which is acidic with a
pC02 which is elevated means that she is no longer ventilating at all (she needs
mechanical ventilation or she will die).
A 48-year-old nurse with a body mass index of 31 presents for an evaluation of back
pain. She relates that historically, she had a positive PPD test a year ago and did not
follow-up as directed. She has recently been experiencing night sweats and coughing.
An x-ray of her lumbar spine reveals osteopenia and cortical breakdown of vertebral
bodies L4 and L5. Which of the following diagnosis is most suspect?