Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam| 300
Q&A 100% CORRECT
1. Kidneys require at least ______ of cardiac output.
Answer: 20-25%
2. Reduced perfusion of a kidney activates the _____ system, which causes constriction of
peripheral arterioles.
Answer: renin-angiotensin-aldosterone
3. Most common type of kidney stone is composed of ______.
Answer: calcium oxalate
4. Passage of kidney stones can produce ______ to the umbilicus area.
Answer: referred pain
5. Sensory innervation of the upper ureter arises from the ______ thoracic nerve root.
Answer: 10th
6. ______ in older adults may present with confusion and abdominal discomfort.
Answer: Urinary tract infection
7. ______ is an infection of the renal pelvis, kidney interstitium, or ureters.
Answer: Pyelonephritis
8. The two most common risk factors for pyelonephritis are ______ and ______.
Answer: urinary obstruction; vesicoureteral reflux
9. Three most common pathogens in acute pyelonephritis are ______, ______, and
______.
Answer: E. coli; Proteus; Pseudomonas
10. Alkaline/Acidic urine increases the risk of struvite stone formation.
Answer: Alkaline
11. ______ is characterized by increased RBC mass, causing headaches and ruddy
complexion.
Answer: Polycythemia vera
12. Microcytic-hypochromic anemia is most commonly caused by ______.
Answer: iron deficiency
,13. ______ anemia involves normal-sized RBCs with insufficient hemoglobin.
Answer: Normochromic-normocytic
14. ______ cells are pathognomonic for Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
Answer: Reed-Sternberg
15. Pernicious anemia results from a deficiency of ______.
Answer: vitamin B12
16. ______ triggers immune-mediated platelet destruction in ITP.
Answer: Viral infection
17. ______ is the primary cause of type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Answer: Insulin resistance
18. Chronic hyperglycemia leads to ______, a key marker of diabetic nephropathy.
Answer: microalbuminuria
19. In hypothyroidism, ______ levels are typically elevated.
Answer: TSH
20. ______ is critical for preventing neural tube defects during pregnancy.
Answer: Folic acid
21. Type III hypersensitivity involves ______.
Answer: immune complex deposition
22. ______ is an autoimmune disorder targeting pancreatic beta cells.
Answer: Type 1 diabetes mellitus
23. Atopic individuals produce excess ______ antibodies.
Answer: IgE
24. ______ syndrome is linked to thymic developmental defects.
Answer: DiGeorge
25. ______ occurs when immune complexes block capillary beds in Raynaud’s phenomenon.
Answer: Vasospasm
26. ______ is the hallmark of systemic lupus erythematosus.
Answer: Antinuclear antibodies (ANAs)
27. In ______, autoantibodies destroy intrinsic factor, impairing vitamin B12 absorption.
Answer: pernicious anemia
, 28. ______ describes ineffective erythropoiesis in myelodysplastic syndromes.
Answer: Dysplasia
29. ______ is the primary mediator of anaphylactic shock.
Answer: Histamine
30. ______ is characterized by granuloma formation in chronic inflammation.
Answer: Sarcoidosis
31. ______ cells mediate humoral immunity through antibody production.
Answer: B lymphocytes
32. ______ is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia.
Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
33. ______ describes fluid accumulation in pleural spaces due to heart failure.
Answer: Transudative effusion
34. ______ is the primary pathological mechanism in emphysema.
Answer: Elastase-mediated alveolar destruction
35. ______ receptors in asthma respond to leukotrienes during bronchoconstriction.
Answer: CysLT1
36. ______ is the gold standard for diagnosing pulmonary embolism.
Answer: CT pulmonary angiography
37. ______ describes right heart strain secondary to pulmonary hypertension.
Answer: Cor pulmonale
38. ______ is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis.
Answer: Gallstones
39. ______ is pathognomonic for Crohn's disease on endoscopy.
Answer: Cobblestone appearance
40. ______ describes elevated ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy.
Answer: Hyperammonemia
41. ______ is the primary cause of esophageal varices.
Answer: Portal hypertension
42. ______ is the hallmark laboratory finding in celiac disease.
Answer: Anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies
Q&A 100% CORRECT
1. Kidneys require at least ______ of cardiac output.
Answer: 20-25%
2. Reduced perfusion of a kidney activates the _____ system, which causes constriction of
peripheral arterioles.
Answer: renin-angiotensin-aldosterone
3. Most common type of kidney stone is composed of ______.
Answer: calcium oxalate
4. Passage of kidney stones can produce ______ to the umbilicus area.
Answer: referred pain
5. Sensory innervation of the upper ureter arises from the ______ thoracic nerve root.
Answer: 10th
6. ______ in older adults may present with confusion and abdominal discomfort.
Answer: Urinary tract infection
7. ______ is an infection of the renal pelvis, kidney interstitium, or ureters.
Answer: Pyelonephritis
8. The two most common risk factors for pyelonephritis are ______ and ______.
Answer: urinary obstruction; vesicoureteral reflux
9. Three most common pathogens in acute pyelonephritis are ______, ______, and
______.
Answer: E. coli; Proteus; Pseudomonas
10. Alkaline/Acidic urine increases the risk of struvite stone formation.
Answer: Alkaline
11. ______ is characterized by increased RBC mass, causing headaches and ruddy
complexion.
Answer: Polycythemia vera
12. Microcytic-hypochromic anemia is most commonly caused by ______.
Answer: iron deficiency
,13. ______ anemia involves normal-sized RBCs with insufficient hemoglobin.
Answer: Normochromic-normocytic
14. ______ cells are pathognomonic for Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
Answer: Reed-Sternberg
15. Pernicious anemia results from a deficiency of ______.
Answer: vitamin B12
16. ______ triggers immune-mediated platelet destruction in ITP.
Answer: Viral infection
17. ______ is the primary cause of type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Answer: Insulin resistance
18. Chronic hyperglycemia leads to ______, a key marker of diabetic nephropathy.
Answer: microalbuminuria
19. In hypothyroidism, ______ levels are typically elevated.
Answer: TSH
20. ______ is critical for preventing neural tube defects during pregnancy.
Answer: Folic acid
21. Type III hypersensitivity involves ______.
Answer: immune complex deposition
22. ______ is an autoimmune disorder targeting pancreatic beta cells.
Answer: Type 1 diabetes mellitus
23. Atopic individuals produce excess ______ antibodies.
Answer: IgE
24. ______ syndrome is linked to thymic developmental defects.
Answer: DiGeorge
25. ______ occurs when immune complexes block capillary beds in Raynaud’s phenomenon.
Answer: Vasospasm
26. ______ is the hallmark of systemic lupus erythematosus.
Answer: Antinuclear antibodies (ANAs)
27. In ______, autoantibodies destroy intrinsic factor, impairing vitamin B12 absorption.
Answer: pernicious anemia
, 28. ______ describes ineffective erythropoiesis in myelodysplastic syndromes.
Answer: Dysplasia
29. ______ is the primary mediator of anaphylactic shock.
Answer: Histamine
30. ______ is characterized by granuloma formation in chronic inflammation.
Answer: Sarcoidosis
31. ______ cells mediate humoral immunity through antibody production.
Answer: B lymphocytes
32. ______ is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia.
Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
33. ______ describes fluid accumulation in pleural spaces due to heart failure.
Answer: Transudative effusion
34. ______ is the primary pathological mechanism in emphysema.
Answer: Elastase-mediated alveolar destruction
35. ______ receptors in asthma respond to leukotrienes during bronchoconstriction.
Answer: CysLT1
36. ______ is the gold standard for diagnosing pulmonary embolism.
Answer: CT pulmonary angiography
37. ______ describes right heart strain secondary to pulmonary hypertension.
Answer: Cor pulmonale
38. ______ is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis.
Answer: Gallstones
39. ______ is pathognomonic for Crohn's disease on endoscopy.
Answer: Cobblestone appearance
40. ______ describes elevated ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy.
Answer: Hyperammonemia
41. ______ is the primary cause of esophageal varices.
Answer: Portal hypertension
42. ______ is the hallmark laboratory finding in celiac disease.
Answer: Anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies
