NURS 6551 Midterm Exam / NURS6551 Midterm Exam (LATEST 2020)(50 Q/A): Primary Care of Women (Updated Complete Solutions, Already Graded A)

NURS 6551 Midterm Exam / NURS6551 Midterm Exam (LATEST 2020): Primary Care of Women QUESTION 1 1. Which of the following is a diagnostic label that is listed in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual IV-TR? 2. 3. a. a. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder 4. 5. b. b. Premenstrual magnification 6. 7. c. c. Dysmenorrhea 8. 9. d. d. Premenstrual syndrome QUESTION 2 About half of all pregnancies in the United States are unintended and occur most frequently in women who: 2. 3. a. a. Are married or divorced 4. 5. b. b.Have finished high school 6. 7. c. c. Are between the ages of 18 and 24 8. 9. d. d. Are members of the majority group QUESTION 3 What is one factor that can reduce the risk for the development of ovarian cancer? a. Multiple pregnancies b. Transvaginal ultrasounds c. Identification of recurrence d. Weight loss QUESTION 4 What percentage of toxic shock syndrome cases are related to menses? a. 50% b. 25% c. 75% d. 90% QUESTION 5 Tubal sterilization for women who have completed their families is highly effective, but there are disadvantages such as: a. Women are less likely to use condoms or return for health services. b. There is a decreased risk of ovarian cancer and pelvic inflammatory disease. c. There is a high likelihood of complications and side effects. d. The surgery is not covered by insurance. QUESTION 6 Women who report experiencing the most severe symptoms of PMS tend to be: 1. 2. a. a. In their late 40s 3. 4. b. b. In their early 20s 5. 6. c. c. In their late teens 7. 8. d. d. In their late 30s QUESTION 7 What is the definition of primary amenorrhea? a. The cessation of menses for an interval of 6 months b. The failure to begin menses by age 14 c. The cessation of menses due to outflow tract obstruction d. The failure to begin menses by age 16 QUESTION 8 How many stages does the Tanner scale use to stage sexual maturity? a. 3 stages b. 5 stages c. 6 stages d. 8 stages QUESTION 9 Which contraceptive methods have inherent failure rates? 1. 2. a. a.None 3. 4. b. b.Some 5. 6. c. c.All7. 8. d. d.All except sterilization QUESTION 10 What is the most common type of menstrual dysfunction related to hyperandrogenism? a. Painful menstruation b. Absence of menses c. Irregular bleeding d. Early menopause QUESTION 11 Combined oral contraceptives (COCs) are among the most extensively studied medications available. Which one of the following statements about their use has been found to be true? a. Broad-spectrum antibiotics may enhance their efficacy. b. They do not increase the risk of venous thromboembolism. c. They decrease the relative risk of ovarian and endometrial cancers. d. Among possible side effects are acne, hirsuitism, and benign breast conditions. QUESTION 12 Many patients experiencing intimate partner violence (IPV) meet the criteria for diagnosing PTSD. Those criteria include all of the following except: 1. 2. a. a.Experiencing a traumatic event 3. 4. b. b.Reexperiencing the traumatic event 5. 6. c. c.Numbness and avoidance 7. 8. d. d.Hypovigilance QUESTION 13 Which of the following is an ethical issue that is specifically associated with pre-implantation testing with ART? 1. 2. a. a.Ownership of frozen embryos after the couple has divorced 3. 4. b. b.A surrogate deciding she does not want to relinquish the infant 5. 6. c. c.Genetic engineering and the ability to reject embryos affected by inherited disorders 7. 8. d. d.The implantation of multiple embryos, which can create high risk for the embryos and the woman QUESTION 14 The ________ is probably the most widely used intimate partner violence (IPV) screen. a. Three-QUESTION AAS (McFarlane et al., 1992) b. Campbell’s Danger Assessment (2003) c. Sheridan’s HARASS Instrument d. Helton’s nine-QUESTION AAS QUESTION 15 What is the term for the absence of menses for 3 to 6 months in a woman who has previously menstruated and is not pregnant, breastfeeding, or menopausal? 1. 2. a. 3. Primary amenorrhea 4. 5. b. 6. Initial dysmenorrhea 7. 8. c. 9. Secondary amenorrhea 10. 11. d. 12. Primary dysmenorrhea QUESTION 16 Among women age 55 years and older: a. Macromastia is the most common cause of breast masses. b. Breast masses are presumed malignant until proven otherwise. c. Most breast masses decrease in size over time and many resolve completely. d. Diagnostic imaging of a breast mass and tissue sampling should be deferred. QUESTION 17 Both very young and elderly sexual assault victims: 1. 2. a. Are addressed in most state mandatory reporting laws 3. 4. b. never has any difficulty describing the incident and related symptoms 5. 6. c. Require the same equipment for proper examination that others do 7. 8. d. Have fewer injuries than victims of other age groups QUESTION 18 What is the major source of normal vaginal secretions? a. Bartholin’s glands b. Apocrine glands c. Sebaceous glands d. Cervical mucosa QUESTION 19 Which one of the following statements about intimate partner violence (IPV) is false? 1. 2. a. 3. It refers to an escalating pattern of abuse. 4. 5. b. 6. It includes emotional abuse, such as disregarding what a woman wants. 7. 8. c. 9. It includes using physical force to make a woman engage in a sexual act against her will. 10. 11. d. 12. It refers to a current or former spouse or dating partner of the opposite sex, not someone of the same sex. QUESTION 20 How is being overweight defined on the BMI table? a. 18–29.9 b. 20–29.9 c. 25–29.9 d. 30 or greater QUESTION 21 What has contributed to the decreased incidence of hepatitis B over the past 20 years? 1. 2. a. 3. The decrease in PID 4. 5. b. 6. The HBV vaccination 7. 8. c. 9. The increase in condom use 10. 11. d. 12. More precise screening methods QUESTION 22 Which are the most common forms of hepatitis seen in women’s health practices? a. A and B b. A and D c. B, C, and D d. B and C QUESTION 23 The factors that enable women to enjoy and control their sexual and reproductive lives, including a physical and emotional state of well-being and the quality of sexual and other close relationships, make up a woman’s: 1. 2. a. 3. Sexual health 4. 5. b. 6. Gender identity 7. 8. c. 9. Gender role behaviors 10. 11. d. 12. Psychosocial orientation QUESTION 24 What test should be ordered for a woman who is experiencing abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB) as well as headaches and peripheral vision changes? a. Thyroid-stimulating hormone test b. Nucleic acid amplification test c. Complete blood count d. Prolactin level test QUESTION 25 Surgical abortion represents an option for women who desire termination of pregnancy beyond: 1. 2. a. 3. 8 weeks’ gestation 4. 5. b. 6. 12 weeks’ gestation 7. 8. c. 9. 4 weeks’ gestation 10. 11. d. 12. 15 weeks’ gestation QUESTION 26 What POPulation of women should be screened for signs and symptoms of thyroid dysfunction? 1. 2. a. 3. All women 4. 5. b. 6. Older women 7. 8. c. 9. Older women, smokers, and women with diabetes 10. 11. d. 12. Older women, postpartum women, and women with Down syndrome QUESTION 27 All of the following diagnostic testing and procedures are now infrequently performed in clinical practice except: 1. 2. a. 3. Hysterosalpingogram 4. 5. b. 6. Sperm penetration assay 7. 8. c. 9. The postcoital test (PCT) 10. 11. d. 12. Endometrial biopsy (EMB) QUESTION 28 The most common site for endometrial implants found in other parts of the body is: 1. 2. a. 3. The appendix 4. 5. b. 6. The uterus 7. 8. c. 9. The ovaries 10. 11. d. 12. The fallopian tubes QUESTION 29 Women who have had toxic shock syndrome should be instructed not to use tampons or: a. Barrier contraception methods b. Hormonal contraception methods c. Intravaginal antibiotic cream d. Oral antibiotics QUESTION 30 Cyclic mastalgia: a. More likely causes unilateral, localized pain that is sharp or burning in nature b. Has an increased risk of occurrence in women whose diets are low in fat c. Occurs most frequently in women who are 18 to 30 years old d. Is caused by hormonal changes associated with menstruation QUESTION 31 The incidence of uterine fibroids: 1. 2. a. 3. Increases with age 4. 5. b. 6. Decreases with age 7. 8. c. 9. Is often caused by early menopause 10. 11. d. 12. Is related to the age of first menses QUESTION 32 Patients presenting for STI treatment should be screened for HIV: a. At each visit b. At the end of treatment c. At the beginning of treatment d. Each year QUESTION 33 1. What screening recommendation is similar across all groups for colorectal cancer? 2. 3. a. 4. Screening women age 76 to 85 based on risk factors 5. 6. b. 7. Screening only for those women at increased risk 8. 9. c. 10. Screening for all women starting at age 50 11. 12. d. 13. Against routine screening in adults age 76 and over QUESTION 34 Approximately what percentage of vulvar cancers occur in women older than the age of 50? a. 50% b. 70% c. 85% d. 60% QUESTION 35 Signs of endometrial or cervical cancer may present abnormal uterine bleeding, often as heavy, prolonged bleeding or: 1. 2. a. 3. Menometrorrhagia 4. 5. b. 6. Amenorrhea 7. 8. c. 9. Oligomenorrhea 10. 11. d. 12. Polymenorrhea QUESTION 36 In the GTPAL system for recording pregnancy history, the “T” stands for: a. Term births b. Terminal pregnancies c. Total number of pregnancies d. Type of birth (spontaneous, assisted, or cesarean) QUESTION 37 What is now thought to be the most important causative agent in cervical cancer? a. PCOS b. Vulvar cancer c. Herpes simplex d. HPV QUESTION 38 The most common sites of metastatic spread of invasive breast cancer include all of the following except: 1. 2. a. 3. Bones 4. 5. b. 6. Lungs 7. 8. c. 9. Pituitary 10. 11. d. 12. Lymph nodes QUESTION 39 Who should be screened regularly for STIs? a. Women who have more than one sexual partner b. Women over the age of 21 c. Women who are sexually active d. Women over the age of 15 QUESTION 40 What is a common vasomotor symptom of menopause? 1. 2. a. 3. Blood clots 4. 5. b. 6. Night sweats 7. 8. c. 9. Osteoporosis 10. 11. d. 12. Hysterectomy QUESTION 41 What is the best definition of abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB)? a. Uterine bleeding for which no pelvic pathology is found b. Uterine bleeding that is irregular during a woman’s menstrual cycle c. Uterine bleeding that is irregular in amount or frequency d. Uterine bleeding that is related to systemic conditions QUESTION 42 What should be the clinician’s first objective after learning the chief reason the woman desires care? a. To give the reason or problem a structural and chronological framework b. To probe for any additional concerns missed c. To take a family history related to the presenting concern d. To gain insight into the woman’s cultural and social influences QUESTION 43 No risk factors other than age are identifiable in ______ of women with breast cancer. a. 100% b. 85% c. 60% d. 24% QUESTION 44 The highest prevalence of human papillomavirus (HPV) is found among women ages: a. 18–20 b. 20–24 c. 25–30 d. 30–35 QUESTION 45 Although barrier contraception methods are less effective in preventing pregnancy than more modern methods, interest in them is on the rise because they: a. Can help protect against STIs, including HIV b. Are coitus dependent and require planning c. Are nonallergenic and male controlled d. Involve the use of hormone QUESTION 46 What is now thought to be the most important causative agent in cervical cancer? a. PCOS b. Vulvar cancer c. Herpes simplex d. HPV QUESTION 47 Women who have had toxic shock syndrome should be instructed not to use tampons or: a. Barrier contraception methods b. Hormonal contraception methods c. Intravaginal antibiotic cream d. Oral antibiotics QUESTION 48 How many stages does the Tanner scale use to stage sexual maturity? a. 3 stages b. 5 stages c. 6 stages d. 8 stages QUESTION 49 Which contraceptive methods have inherent failure rates? 1. 2. a. a.None 3. 4. b. b.Some 5. 6. c. c.All7. 8. d. d.All except sterilization QUESTION 50 About half of all pregnancies in the United States are unintended and occur most frequently in women who: 2. 3. a. a. Are married or divorced 4. 5. b. b.Have finished high school 6. 7. c. c. Are between the ages of 18 and 24 8. 9. d. d. Are members of the majority group