CHAPTER 1: Fundamentals of Nursing, 2nd Edition – Active Learning for Collaborative Practice by Yoost & Crawford

Fundamentals of Nursing, 2nd Edition – Active Learning for Collaborative Practice by Yoost & Crawford Chapter 1 : Nursing, Theory, and Professional Practice Multiple Choice Questions 1. A group of nursing students are discussing the impact of non-nursing theories in clinical practice. Which theory should they prioritize to guide patient care decisions? A. Erikson's Psychosocial Theory B. Paul's Critical-Thinking Theory C. Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs D. Rosenstock's Health Belief Model Answer: C Explanation: Maslow's hierarchy addresses physiological and psychological needs, which are foundational to nursing diagnoses and care prioritization. It aligns with patient-centered care by focusing on holistic needs. Why Other Options Are Wrong: A focuses on developmental stages, not immediate care needs. B emphasizes cognitive skills rather than patient needs. D explains health behaviors but doesn’t guide care prioritization. 2. A nursing student is preparing notes on nursing history. Which definition of nursing aligns with Florence Nightingale’s contributions? A. The imbalance between the patient and environment decreases health capacity. B. Interpersonal processes between nurse and patient are central. C. Nurses assist patients toward independence in essential functions. D. Humans interact as energy fields in continuous motion. Answer: A Explanation: Nightingale emphasized environmental factors (clean air, water) as determinants of health, linking imbalance to reduced health capacity. Why Other Options Are Wrong: B describes Peplau’s theory. C reflects Henderson’s definition. D is from Rogers’ Science of Unitary Human Beings. 3. Which nurse established the American Red Cross during the Civil War? A. Dorothea Dix B. Linda Richards C. Lena Higbee D. Clara Barton Answer: D Explanation: Clara Barton founded the American Red Cross, while Dix led the U.S. Sanitary Commission, Richards was the first trained nurse, and Higbee served in the Navy Nurse Corps. Why Other Options Are Wrong: A organized sanitary efforts but not the Red Cross. B and C were pioneers in other nursing roles. 4. Which organization added safety as a sixth competency to the original five identified by the Institute of Medicine (IOM)? A. Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) B. Institute of Medicine (IOM) C. American Association of Colleges of Nursing (AACN) D. National League for Nursing (NLN) Answer: A Explanation: QSEN expanded the IOM’s five competencies (e.g., patient-centered care) by adding safety as a core focus for nursing education. Why Other Options Are Wrong: B created the original five. C and D focus on educational standards, not competency expansion. 5. When hiring graduate nurses, a nurse manager understands they typically achieve "competent" proficiency after how long? A. Graduation and NCLEX passage B. 2–3 years of work experience C. During their final year of nursing school D. Upon being hired Answer: B Explanation: Benner’s model identifies competency as requiring 2–3 years of post-graduation clinical experience to transition from advanced beginner. Why Other Options Are Wrong: A qualifies them as novices. C and D occur before gaining sufficient experience. 6. Which degree best prepares a nurse to conduct research at the university level? A. Associate Degree in Nursing (ADN) B. Bachelor of Science in Nursing (BSN) C. Doctor of Nursing Practice (DNP) D. Doctor of Philosophy in Nursing (PhD) Answer: D Explanation: A PhD focuses on research, teaching, and leadership, unlike practice-oriented degrees (DNP) or entry-level programs (ADN/BSN). Why Other Options Are Wrong: A and B lack research training. C emphasizes clinical practice over research. 7. Which organization awards Magnet status to hospitals for nursing excellence? A. American Nurses Association (ANA) B. American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC) C. National League for Nursing (NLN) D. Joint Commission Answer: B Explanation: The ANCC grants Magnet recognition for nursing innovation and quality, while ANA sets practice standards, NLN oversees education, and Joint Commission accredits facilities. Why Other Options Are Wrong: A advocates for nurses but doesn’t award Magnet status. C and D focus on education and facility accreditation. 8. When a nurse respects a patient’s refusal of blood transfusions and communicates this to the provider, which role is demonstrated? A. Manager B. Change agent C. Advocate D. Educator Answer: C Explanation: Advocacy involves supporting patient autonomy and communicating their decisions, even when they conflict with medical advice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: A coordinates care but doesn’t prioritize patient preferences. B drives systemic change. D focuses on teaching. 9. A student creates a care plan based on a journal article about bed rest’s effects on calcium levels. What is their obligation? A. Critically appraise the evidence for validity B. Avoid altering current practices C. Implement changes without identifying problems D. Maintain the plan regardless of outcomes Answer: A Explanation: Evidence-based practice requires evaluating research quality before application to ensure validity and relevance. Why Other Options Are Wrong: B contradicts EBP’s goal of improvement. C ignores problem assessment. D disregards outcome evaluation. 10. When delegating BP measurements to an LPN, what must the RN understand? A. The LPN’s competence can be assumed B. The LPN is solely responsible for findings C. The LPN requires no supervision D. The RN retains ultimate responsibility Answer: D Explanation: Delegation requires RN supervision, as accountability for patient care cannot be transferred. Why Other Options Are Wrong: A and C violate delegation principles. B misrepresents shared responsibility. 11. A patient with low literacy says, "I never got past fifth grade." How should the nurse proceed? A. Provide detailed professional handouts B. Expect potential readmission due to poor discharge understanding C. Rely on the physician’s explanations D. Exclude the patient from wellness classes Answer: B Explanation: Low literacy correlates with poor health outcomes; nurses must tailor education to comprehension levels to prevent readmission. Why Other Options Are Wrong: A may overwhelm the patient. C shifts responsibility unfairly. D denies equitable care access. 12. Which theory would guide a nurse addressing fatigue in a postpartum patient with anemia? A. Watson’s Human Caring Theory B. Parse’s Theory of Human Becoming C. Roy’s Adaptation Model D. Rogers’ Science of Unitary Human Beings Answer: C Explanation: Roy’s model addresses physiologic needs (e.g., rest) and adaptation to stressors like anemia. Why Other Options Are Wrong: A focuses on compassion, B on existential change, and D on energy fields. 13. Which theorist described the nurse-patient relationship as an interpersonal therapeutic process? A. Virginia Henderson B. Betty Neuman C. Imogene King D. Hildegard Peplau Answer: D Explanation: Peplau’s theory centers on nurse-patient interaction phases (orientation, working, resolution). Why Other Options Are Wrong: A emphasized independence, B addressed systems, and C focused on goal attainment. 14. Nursing students serving meals at a shelter demonstrate which professional value? A. Altruism B. Accountability C. Autonomy D. Advocacy Answer: A Explanation: Altruism reflects selfless service to society, a core nursing value. Why Other Options Are Wrong: B involves responsibility, C independence, and D supporting patient rights. 15. A nurse recommends home health for wound care. Which standard of practice is this? A. Assessment B. Diagnosis C. Planning D. Implementation Answer: C Explanation: Planning involves coordinating resources (e.g., referrals) to meet patient needs post-discharge. Why Other Options Are Wrong: A involves data collection, B identifies problems, and D executes interventions. 16. A nurse reports a medication error. Which professional standard is upheld? A. Ethics B. Socialization C. Altruism D. Autonomy Answer: A Explanation: Ethical practice requires honesty and accountability for errors to ensure patient safety. Why Other Options Are Wrong: B relates to role adaptation, C to selflessness, and D to independent decision-making. 17. Where should a new RN find scope-of-practice guidelines for conscious sedation? A. National Student Nurses Association B. Nurse Practice Act C. ANA Standards D. National League for Nursing Answer: B Explanation: State Nurse Practice Acts legally define RN responsibilities, including procedural limits. Why Other Options Are Wrong: A supports students, C outlines professional conduct, and D focuses on education. 18. Which advanced practice role involves direct patient care? A. Nurse Administrator B. Clinical Nurse Leader C. Clinical Nurse Specialist D. Nurse Educator Answer: C Explanation: CNSs provide direct care in specialties, unlike administrators, educators, or CNLs who focus on systems. Why Other Options Are Wrong: A and D are indirect roles. B oversees care coordination but not direct interventions. 19. What task can an LPN perform under RN supervision? A. Initiate care plans B. Formulate nursing diagnoses C. Assess new admissions D. Administer oral medications Answer: D Explanation: LPNs can administer medications (except certain IV drugs) but cannot perform assessments or diagnoses requiring RN judgment. Why Other Options Are Wrong: A, B, and C are outside LPN scope. 20. What term describes the most abstract level of nursing knowledge? A. Metaparadigm B. Philosophy C. Conceptual framework D. Nursing theory Answer: A Explanation: Metaparadigms (e.g., person, environment) are broad, foundational concepts guiding the discipline. Why Other Options Are Wrong: B articulates beliefs, C organizes concepts, and D applies frameworks to practice. Multiple Response Questions 1. Which statements confirm nursing as a profession? (Select all that apply.) A. Nursing requires specialized training. B. Nursing has a specialized body of knowledge. C. The ANA regulates nursing practice. D. Nurses make independent decisions within their scope. E. No further education is needed post-licensure. Answer: A, B, D Explanation: Professions demand specialized training/knowledge and autonomy. The ANA sets standards but doesn’t regulate practice, and continuing education is mandatory. Why Other Options Are Wrong: C misrepresents ANA’s role. E contradicts lifelong learning requirements. 2. What did the IOM recommend for nursing? (Select all that apply.) A. Nurses practicing to full education extent. B. Seamless education progression. C. Subservience to physicians. D. Better data infrastructure. E. No need for higher education. Answer: A, B, D Explanation: The IOM advocated for full practice authority, educational advancement, and data driven policies, rejecting hierarchical physician dominance. Why Other Options Are Wrong: C contradicts partnership goals. E opposes higher education recommendations. 3. Which actions align with 2018 hospital safety goals? (Select all that apply.) A. Placing an ID band on the right arm. B. Marking the surgical site with a pen. C. Checking medications three times. D. Handwashing between patients. E. Removing allergy bands pre-surgery. Answer: A, B, C, D Explanation: These actions address accurate identification, infection control, and medication safety. Allergy bands must remain for risk identification. Why Other Options Are Wrong: E jeopardizes patient safety by obscuring critical information. 4. What cultural factors should nurses assess? (Select all that apply.) A. Food preferences. B. Religious practices. C. Health beliefs. D. Family orientation. E. Political views. Answer: A, B, C, D Explanation: Cultural competence includes understanding dietary, spiritual, health, and familial contexts, while politics are irrelevant to care. Why Other Options Are Wrong: E doesn’t impact clinical care planning. 5. What steps apply Evidence-Based Practice to delayed lab results? (Select all that apply.) A. Identify the problem. B. Consider facility resources. C. Review journal articles. D. Apply findings with patient input. E. Use one article’s recommendation. Answer: A, B, C, D Explanation: EBP involves problem identification, resource assessment, literature review, and patient-centered application, not reliance on a single source. Why Other Options Are Wrong: E violates EBP’s comprehensive evidence requirement.