NCCT MOCK EXAM UPDATED QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED
ANSWERS
The order reads cefaclor (Ceclor) 250 mg p.o. stat, then 150 mg q 2 h. How should
the medical assistant interpret this medication order?
A. Give 250 milligrams of cefaclor (Ceclor) orally immediately, and then give 150
milligrams every 2 hours.
B. Give 250 micrograms of cefaclor (Ceclor) orally immediately, and then give 150
micrograms every 2 hours.
C. Give 250 milliliters of cefaclor (Ceclor) post-operatively as needed, and then
give 150 milliliters every 2 hours.
D. Give 250 milligrams of cefaclor (Ceclor) post-operatively, and then give 150
milligrams every 2 hours.
Correct response:
Give 250 milligrams of cefaclor (Ceclor) orally immediately, and then give 150
milligrams every 2 hours.
Rationale: p.o.=oral (by mouth), stat=now (immediately), mg=milligrams, q=every
Which of the following are Schedule IV drugs?
A. controlled narcotics such as morphine
B. antianxiety agents and hypnotics with a low potential for abuse
C. broad spectrum antibiotics
D. substances with no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse
Correct response:
antianxiety agents and hypnotics with a low potential for abuse
Rationale: Controlled substances are classified according to five different schedules.
Schedule I drugs have high abuse potential and are not considered medically safe
treatment options, thus have no medical use (i.e. heroin). Schedule II drugs also have a
high abuse potential that could result in severe physical and/or psychological addiction
(i.e. morphine). Schedule III drugs have a low-moderate abuse potential but could still
be highly psychologically addictive (i.e. Vicodin). Schedule IV drugs have low potential
for abuse such as antianxiety agents and hypnotics (i.e. Valium, Xanax, Ativan).
Schedule V drugs have low abuse potential: cough medicines and antidiarrheal
,medicines that may contain very limited amounts of narcotics (i.e. Robitussin AC).
Antibiotics are not addictive, so they are not classified under the controlled substance
schedule.
Which of the following techniques is correct when collecting a throat culture?
A. Insert swab into the nostril and rub against the turbinate to absorb mucous.
B. Swab both sides of the mouth, tongue, and nasopharnyx.
C. Use a tongue depressor and swab both sides of the throat.
D. Depress the patient's tongue and place the swab in a viral media tube following
collection.
Correct response:
Use a tongue depressor and swab both sides of the throat.
Rationale: To ensure an adequate sample of secretions is obtained from both tonsils
and the back of throat, a tongue depressor is used and both sides of the throat are
swabbed. A viral media tube would not be necessary, and the swab wouldn't go into the
nostril or touch the tongue or sides of the mouth since a throat culture is what is
needed.
The importance of accurate anatomic positioning of leads on a patient when
performing an ECG is to
A. allow interruption of negative electrical conduction.
B. capture true cardiac activity.
C. ensure proper machine calibration with universal measurements.
D. stimulate positive electrical impulses.
Correct response:
capture true cardiac activity.
Rationale: Incorrect placement of leads is a known cause of artifact changes in the
ECG, and leaves the patient at risk for error. Patients may receive potentially harmful
treatment if not placed correctly. Incorrect placement of the precordial electrodes (V1-
V6, forming the horizontal plane on the chest wall closest to the heart) changes the
ECG significantly.
The physician excises a mole and wants to send it to the pathology laboratory for
further analysis. The sample should be placed with care into which of the
, following collection containers?
A. sterile test tube with anticoagulant
B. sterile swab collection and transport system
C. sterile Thin-PrepTM collection container
D. sterile specimen container with formalin
Correct response:
sterile specimen container with formalin
Rationale: The sample would be contained according to the guidelines provided by the
laboratory doing the testing (depending on which testing the physician wants to do on
the sample). In this scenario, the mole would be placed in medium to preserve the
tissue and inhibit growth of undesirable microorganisms (so a sterile container with
formalin would be the best choice). A sterile swab collection container would be utilized
if the physician wanted to culture the area around the mole, but not for containing the
actual mole. A sterile test tube with anticoagulant would be used to collect a blood
sample. The Thin-Prep media is generally used for pap smears and similar specimens,
not for moles.
The post office returns a patient's bill to the clinic with the notation "address
unknown." Which of the following steps are appropriate in handling this
situation? (Select the three (3) correct answers.)
A. Prepare a new envelope with the corrected address and new postage.
B. Document the postmark date.
C. Resend the bill to the same address requesting return receipt.
D. Verify the mailing address on file in the clinic database.
E. Call the patient's emergency contact number.
Correct response:
Verify the mailing address on file in the clinic database., Document the postmark date.,
Prepare a new envelope with the corrected address and new postage.
Rationale: Immediate action should be taken in handling returned statements. The first
step would be to verify the mailing address on file and documenting the date the mail
was returned in the file. Once the address is verified, a new envelope with the new
address can be prepared. Resending the bill to the same address with a return receipt
ANSWERS
The order reads cefaclor (Ceclor) 250 mg p.o. stat, then 150 mg q 2 h. How should
the medical assistant interpret this medication order?
A. Give 250 milligrams of cefaclor (Ceclor) orally immediately, and then give 150
milligrams every 2 hours.
B. Give 250 micrograms of cefaclor (Ceclor) orally immediately, and then give 150
micrograms every 2 hours.
C. Give 250 milliliters of cefaclor (Ceclor) post-operatively as needed, and then
give 150 milliliters every 2 hours.
D. Give 250 milligrams of cefaclor (Ceclor) post-operatively, and then give 150
milligrams every 2 hours.
Correct response:
Give 250 milligrams of cefaclor (Ceclor) orally immediately, and then give 150
milligrams every 2 hours.
Rationale: p.o.=oral (by mouth), stat=now (immediately), mg=milligrams, q=every
Which of the following are Schedule IV drugs?
A. controlled narcotics such as morphine
B. antianxiety agents and hypnotics with a low potential for abuse
C. broad spectrum antibiotics
D. substances with no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse
Correct response:
antianxiety agents and hypnotics with a low potential for abuse
Rationale: Controlled substances are classified according to five different schedules.
Schedule I drugs have high abuse potential and are not considered medically safe
treatment options, thus have no medical use (i.e. heroin). Schedule II drugs also have a
high abuse potential that could result in severe physical and/or psychological addiction
(i.e. morphine). Schedule III drugs have a low-moderate abuse potential but could still
be highly psychologically addictive (i.e. Vicodin). Schedule IV drugs have low potential
for abuse such as antianxiety agents and hypnotics (i.e. Valium, Xanax, Ativan).
Schedule V drugs have low abuse potential: cough medicines and antidiarrheal
,medicines that may contain very limited amounts of narcotics (i.e. Robitussin AC).
Antibiotics are not addictive, so they are not classified under the controlled substance
schedule.
Which of the following techniques is correct when collecting a throat culture?
A. Insert swab into the nostril and rub against the turbinate to absorb mucous.
B. Swab both sides of the mouth, tongue, and nasopharnyx.
C. Use a tongue depressor and swab both sides of the throat.
D. Depress the patient's tongue and place the swab in a viral media tube following
collection.
Correct response:
Use a tongue depressor and swab both sides of the throat.
Rationale: To ensure an adequate sample of secretions is obtained from both tonsils
and the back of throat, a tongue depressor is used and both sides of the throat are
swabbed. A viral media tube would not be necessary, and the swab wouldn't go into the
nostril or touch the tongue or sides of the mouth since a throat culture is what is
needed.
The importance of accurate anatomic positioning of leads on a patient when
performing an ECG is to
A. allow interruption of negative electrical conduction.
B. capture true cardiac activity.
C. ensure proper machine calibration with universal measurements.
D. stimulate positive electrical impulses.
Correct response:
capture true cardiac activity.
Rationale: Incorrect placement of leads is a known cause of artifact changes in the
ECG, and leaves the patient at risk for error. Patients may receive potentially harmful
treatment if not placed correctly. Incorrect placement of the precordial electrodes (V1-
V6, forming the horizontal plane on the chest wall closest to the heart) changes the
ECG significantly.
The physician excises a mole and wants to send it to the pathology laboratory for
further analysis. The sample should be placed with care into which of the
, following collection containers?
A. sterile test tube with anticoagulant
B. sterile swab collection and transport system
C. sterile Thin-PrepTM collection container
D. sterile specimen container with formalin
Correct response:
sterile specimen container with formalin
Rationale: The sample would be contained according to the guidelines provided by the
laboratory doing the testing (depending on which testing the physician wants to do on
the sample). In this scenario, the mole would be placed in medium to preserve the
tissue and inhibit growth of undesirable microorganisms (so a sterile container with
formalin would be the best choice). A sterile swab collection container would be utilized
if the physician wanted to culture the area around the mole, but not for containing the
actual mole. A sterile test tube with anticoagulant would be used to collect a blood
sample. The Thin-Prep media is generally used for pap smears and similar specimens,
not for moles.
The post office returns a patient's bill to the clinic with the notation "address
unknown." Which of the following steps are appropriate in handling this
situation? (Select the three (3) correct answers.)
A. Prepare a new envelope with the corrected address and new postage.
B. Document the postmark date.
C. Resend the bill to the same address requesting return receipt.
D. Verify the mailing address on file in the clinic database.
E. Call the patient's emergency contact number.
Correct response:
Verify the mailing address on file in the clinic database., Document the postmark date.,
Prepare a new envelope with the corrected address and new postage.
Rationale: Immediate action should be taken in handling returned statements. The first
step would be to verify the mailing address on file and documenting the date the mail
was returned in the file. Once the address is verified, a new envelope with the new
address can be prepared. Resending the bill to the same address with a return receipt
