CEA EXAM FULL PRACTICE QUESTION BANK NEWEST
2025/2026 LATEST TESTING EXAM WITH 450+
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
ALREADY GRADED A+ / CEA EXAM PREP (BRAND NEW)
A 28-year-old woman in her first trimester of pregnancy presents with nausea and
vomiting. What is the most appropriate initial management?
*Prescribe ondansetron
*Recommend small, frequent meals
*Prescribe metoclopramide
*Advise bed rest - Prescribe ondansetron
Rationale:
Zofran (Ondansetron) is a medication commonly used to treat nausea and
vomiting. It works by blocking the action of serotonin, a natural substance that
may cause nausea and vomiting
An older adult has a follow-up fasting lipid panel 6 months after making
therapeutic lifestyle changes. LDL=205mg/dL (Normal=<100mg/dL),
HDL=44mg/dL, and triglycerides=180mg/dL (Normal-<150mg/dL). The patient is
placed on statin therapy. Two months later, the patient presents for follow-up
and complains of body aches. In addition to creatine phosphokinase (CPK), which
of the following tests should the nurse practitioner order? - Liver transaminase
(AST and ALT) levels
Rationale:
Due to the potential liver function test elevation found with statin use, LFTs of
AST/ALT should be checked routinely after initiation of therapy
,The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a trademark of
which of the following diagnoses? - Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale:
The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic
dysfunction and is common in patients with thickened hypertrophic
myocardium.
A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with dyspnea on
exertion and orthopnea. On examination, she has jugular venous distention and
bilateral crackles on lung auscultation. What is the most likely diagnosis? -
Congestive heart failure
Rationale:
Of the available options, the most accurate response is congestive heart failure
as it is signifying both a right ventricular back up with jugular venous extension
and crackles on lung assault, which are suggestive of left ventricular back up. it
is possible the patient may have an acute myocardial infarction that
precipitated this, however, a patient has not described that, rather is only
describing dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea, which both speak to a state of
fluid overload. The only appropriate response of these available is congestive
heart failure.
An otherwise healthy African American adult male has been diagnosed with
hypertension. He has been restricting his salt intake, eating a DASH (Dietary
Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, and exercising more, but his blood
pressure is still elevated. Which is the BEST medication to prescribe him? -
Calcium channel blocker
Rationale:
African American patients per JNC8 Hypertension Guidelines should be
managed with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine
,(Norvasc) as first line management therapy for hypertension not at goal with
DASH and lifestyle modifications.
Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending aortic aneurysm. Which
medical imaging is considered standard of care for serial surveillance? - CT
angiography of the chest
Rationale:
CT angiography is considered the standard of care for measuring vascular
luminal dimensions with contrast. CT PE protocol is not timed properly for the
aorta (it's timed for the pulmonary artery). Although a plain film is able to catch
large aneurysms at times, they are not able to provide multi-axis reconstruction
needed to accurately measure the size. Transesophageal echo is not needed to
accurately measure the aorta and requires the patient to undergo sedation
which is unnecessary.
Which of the following medications does not cause beta 1 stimulation? -
phenylephrine
Rationale:
Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1 receptors. The remaining three all have
beta receptor activity.
Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with reduced ejection fraction)
with an ejection fraction of 40% who is also not on optimal medical therapy has
been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction this admission and received
emergent placement of a drug-eluting stent to the left anterior descending artery.
As the medical home who will manage this patient after discharge, which
medication strategy would you expect to be a priority in the patient's care? -
Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF is less than
35%
Rationale:
, The patient should have a protective mechanism such as an implantable
automated cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if the EF is less than
35% due to the increased risk of sudden cardiac death with low EF states. Since
most patients are not eligible for 90 days for an AICD in this state, optimizing
their medication regimen and repeating an echo in 2-3 months to re-evaluate
for improvement in their EF is required by most insurance companies. A
baseline echo is needed at discharge to provide a baseline for improvement vs
their repeat echo in 2-3 months.
Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months minimum post-MI.
A Holter monitor does not provide any conceivable benefit for this patient as
presented.
A 65-year-old woman presents for a follow-up examination. She is a smoker, and
her hypertension is now adequately controlled with medication. Her mother died
at age 40 from a heart attack. The fasting lipid profile shows cholesterol = 240
mg/dL, HDL = 30, and LDL = 200. In addition to starting therapeutic lifestyle
changes, the nurse practitioner should start the patient on: - a statin drug.
Rationale:
Bile acid sequestrants and cholesterol absorption inhibitors may be useful in
reducing ASVD risk, but for a patient who is an active smoker with premature
coronary disease history (less than age 65 for women), has hypertension and is
far from an LDL goal, this patient is most certainly a candidate for statin
therapy, which represents the most aggressive therapy option of these four
listed.
Which of the following end-organ sequelae is not directly caused by uncontrolled
hypertension? - Peripheral neuropathy
Rationale:
Although patients with hypertension frequently have peripheral neuropathy, it
is only directly attributed to patients who are also diabetic and is commonly
2025/2026 LATEST TESTING EXAM WITH 450+
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
ALREADY GRADED A+ / CEA EXAM PREP (BRAND NEW)
A 28-year-old woman in her first trimester of pregnancy presents with nausea and
vomiting. What is the most appropriate initial management?
*Prescribe ondansetron
*Recommend small, frequent meals
*Prescribe metoclopramide
*Advise bed rest - Prescribe ondansetron
Rationale:
Zofran (Ondansetron) is a medication commonly used to treat nausea and
vomiting. It works by blocking the action of serotonin, a natural substance that
may cause nausea and vomiting
An older adult has a follow-up fasting lipid panel 6 months after making
therapeutic lifestyle changes. LDL=205mg/dL (Normal=<100mg/dL),
HDL=44mg/dL, and triglycerides=180mg/dL (Normal-<150mg/dL). The patient is
placed on statin therapy. Two months later, the patient presents for follow-up
and complains of body aches. In addition to creatine phosphokinase (CPK), which
of the following tests should the nurse practitioner order? - Liver transaminase
(AST and ALT) levels
Rationale:
Due to the potential liver function test elevation found with statin use, LFTs of
AST/ALT should be checked routinely after initiation of therapy
,The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a trademark of
which of the following diagnoses? - Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale:
The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic
dysfunction and is common in patients with thickened hypertrophic
myocardium.
A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with dyspnea on
exertion and orthopnea. On examination, she has jugular venous distention and
bilateral crackles on lung auscultation. What is the most likely diagnosis? -
Congestive heart failure
Rationale:
Of the available options, the most accurate response is congestive heart failure
as it is signifying both a right ventricular back up with jugular venous extension
and crackles on lung assault, which are suggestive of left ventricular back up. it
is possible the patient may have an acute myocardial infarction that
precipitated this, however, a patient has not described that, rather is only
describing dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea, which both speak to a state of
fluid overload. The only appropriate response of these available is congestive
heart failure.
An otherwise healthy African American adult male has been diagnosed with
hypertension. He has been restricting his salt intake, eating a DASH (Dietary
Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, and exercising more, but his blood
pressure is still elevated. Which is the BEST medication to prescribe him? -
Calcium channel blocker
Rationale:
African American patients per JNC8 Hypertension Guidelines should be
managed with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine
,(Norvasc) as first line management therapy for hypertension not at goal with
DASH and lifestyle modifications.
Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending aortic aneurysm. Which
medical imaging is considered standard of care for serial surveillance? - CT
angiography of the chest
Rationale:
CT angiography is considered the standard of care for measuring vascular
luminal dimensions with contrast. CT PE protocol is not timed properly for the
aorta (it's timed for the pulmonary artery). Although a plain film is able to catch
large aneurysms at times, they are not able to provide multi-axis reconstruction
needed to accurately measure the size. Transesophageal echo is not needed to
accurately measure the aorta and requires the patient to undergo sedation
which is unnecessary.
Which of the following medications does not cause beta 1 stimulation? -
phenylephrine
Rationale:
Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1 receptors. The remaining three all have
beta receptor activity.
Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with reduced ejection fraction)
with an ejection fraction of 40% who is also not on optimal medical therapy has
been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction this admission and received
emergent placement of a drug-eluting stent to the left anterior descending artery.
As the medical home who will manage this patient after discharge, which
medication strategy would you expect to be a priority in the patient's care? -
Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF is less than
35%
Rationale:
, The patient should have a protective mechanism such as an implantable
automated cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if the EF is less than
35% due to the increased risk of sudden cardiac death with low EF states. Since
most patients are not eligible for 90 days for an AICD in this state, optimizing
their medication regimen and repeating an echo in 2-3 months to re-evaluate
for improvement in their EF is required by most insurance companies. A
baseline echo is needed at discharge to provide a baseline for improvement vs
their repeat echo in 2-3 months.
Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months minimum post-MI.
A Holter monitor does not provide any conceivable benefit for this patient as
presented.
A 65-year-old woman presents for a follow-up examination. She is a smoker, and
her hypertension is now adequately controlled with medication. Her mother died
at age 40 from a heart attack. The fasting lipid profile shows cholesterol = 240
mg/dL, HDL = 30, and LDL = 200. In addition to starting therapeutic lifestyle
changes, the nurse practitioner should start the patient on: - a statin drug.
Rationale:
Bile acid sequestrants and cholesterol absorption inhibitors may be useful in
reducing ASVD risk, but for a patient who is an active smoker with premature
coronary disease history (less than age 65 for women), has hypertension and is
far from an LDL goal, this patient is most certainly a candidate for statin
therapy, which represents the most aggressive therapy option of these four
listed.
Which of the following end-organ sequelae is not directly caused by uncontrolled
hypertension? - Peripheral neuropathy
Rationale:
Although patients with hypertension frequently have peripheral neuropathy, it
is only directly attributed to patients who are also diabetic and is commonly
