ATI Med Surg
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_h6iot5
1. A nurse is caring for client who is experiencing supraventricular tachycar-
dia. Upon assessing the client, the nurse observes the following findings:
heart rate 200/min, blood pressure 78/40 mm Hg, and respiratory rate 30/min.
Which of the following actions should then nurse take?
a. Defibrillate the client's heart.
b. Perform synchronized cardioversion.
c. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
d. Administer lidocaine IV bolus.: b. Perform synchronized cardioversion.
The nurse should perform synchronized cardioversion for a client who has supraven-
tricular tachycardia.
2. What rhythms are shockable? (defibrillation): ventricular fibrillation and pulse-
less ventricular tachycarida
3. What dysrhythmia are amiodarone and lidocaine indicated for?: ventricular
arrhythmias
4. The nurse should initiate CPR for a client who what?: is pulseless or not
breathing
5. A nurse is preparing a client who has supraventricular tachycardia for
elective cardioversion. Which of the following medications should the nurse
instruct the client to withhold for 48 hr prior to cardioversion?
A. Enoxaparin
B. Metformin
C. Diazepam
D. Digoxin: D. digoxin
Cardiac glycosides, such as digoxin, are withheld prior to cardioversion. These
medications can increase ventricular irritability and put the client at risk for ventricular
fibrillation after the synchronized countershock of cardioversion
6. _______ are usually given prior to cardioversion to reduce anxiety and
minimize discomfort with the procedure.: Sedatives like diazepam
7. Metformin is held before what kind of procedures? Example? Why?: Ones
that involve contrast dye like cardiac catheterization, in order to prevent kidney
damage.
8. __________ prevent blood clots that can be released into the circulatory
system after cardioversion.: Anticoagulants like enoxaparin
9. What kind of drugs are withheld prior to cardioversion?: cardiac glycosides
like digoxin
, ATI Med Surg
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_h6iot5
10. exopthalmosis: condition produced by hyperthyroidism in which the eyeballs
protrude beyond their normal protective orbit because of swelling in the tissues
behind them
11. entropion: the inversion of the edge of an eyelid
12. ectropion: the eversion of the edge of an eyelid
13. ptosis: drooping
14. A nurse is caring for a client who has emphysema and is receiving mechan-
ical ventilation. The client appears anxious and restless, and the high-pressure
alarm is sounding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain ABGs.
B. Administer propofol to the client.
C. Instruct the client to allow the machine to breathe for them.
D. Disconnect the machine and manually ventilate the client.: C. Instruct the
client to allow the machine to breathe for them. When providing client care, the nurse
should first use the least restrictive intervention. Therefore, the first action the nurse
should take is to provide verbal instructions and emotional support to help the client
relax and allow the ventilator to work. Clients can exhibit anxiety and restlessness
when trying to "fight the ventilator."
15. A nurse is caring for a client who has a potassium level of 3. Which of the
following assessment findings should the nurse expect?
A. Positive Trousseau's sign
B. 4+ deep tendon reflexes
C. Deep respirations
D. Hypoactive bowel sounds: D. Hypoactive bowel sounds
16. Deep tendon reflexes are used to monitor what electrolyte level?: magne-
sium
17. What kind of respirations occur with hypokalemia and why?: shallow respi-
rations due to respiratory muscle weakness
18. Trosseau's sign evaluates for what electrolyte imbalances?: hypocalcelmia
and hypomagnesemia
, ATI Med Surg
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_h6iot5
19. What is hypokalemia's effect on the GI system?: It decreases smooth muscle
contraction leading to decreased peristalsis and hypoactive bowel sounds.
20. Deep tendon reflexes in hypomagnesemia: increased e.g. 4+
21. Deep tendon reflexes in hypermagnesemia: decreased e.g. absent or 1+
22. What should be done if you are performing a cardiac assessment on a
client and you hear a murmur?: Listen with the client on their left side so it can be
heard more clearly
23. A nurse is conducting an admission history for a client who is to undergo
a CT scan with an IV contrast agent. The nurse should identify that which of
the following findings requires further assessment?
A. History of asthma
B. Appendectomy 1 year ago
C. Penicillin allergy
D. Total knee arthroplasty 6 months ago: A. History of asthma
A client who has a history of asthma has a greater risk of reacting to the contrast dye
used during the procedure. Other conditions that can result in a reaction to contrast
media include allergies to foods, such as shellfish, eggs, milk, and chocolate.
24. What are conditions that may cause a reaction to contrast media? Patients
with these conditions require further screening before a procedure with IV
contrast.: history of asthma and allergies to shellfish, eggs, milk, and chocolate
25. What drugs would warrant further screening for increased risk of renal
damage in someone getting a procedure with IV contrast?: aminoglycosides,
NSAIDs, metformin
26. Patients with what conditions have an increased risk for renal damage from
a procedure with IV contrast?: history of diabetes mellitus, renal impairment, or
heart failure
27. A nurse is an ED is reviewing the provider's prescriptions for a client
who sustained a rattlesnake bite to the lower leg. Which of the following
prescriptions should the nurse expect?
A. Apply ice to the clients puncture wounds
B. Initiate corticosteroid therapy for the client
C. Keep the client's leg above heart level
D. Administer an opioid analgesic to the client: D. Administer an opioid analgesic
to the client
Expect an opioid analgesic to promote comfort in someone with a rattlesnake bite.
28. What critter should you apply ice to the bite of and why?: a black widow
spider bite in order to reduce the action of the neurotoxin
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_h6iot5
1. A nurse is caring for client who is experiencing supraventricular tachycar-
dia. Upon assessing the client, the nurse observes the following findings:
heart rate 200/min, blood pressure 78/40 mm Hg, and respiratory rate 30/min.
Which of the following actions should then nurse take?
a. Defibrillate the client's heart.
b. Perform synchronized cardioversion.
c. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
d. Administer lidocaine IV bolus.: b. Perform synchronized cardioversion.
The nurse should perform synchronized cardioversion for a client who has supraven-
tricular tachycardia.
2. What rhythms are shockable? (defibrillation): ventricular fibrillation and pulse-
less ventricular tachycarida
3. What dysrhythmia are amiodarone and lidocaine indicated for?: ventricular
arrhythmias
4. The nurse should initiate CPR for a client who what?: is pulseless or not
breathing
5. A nurse is preparing a client who has supraventricular tachycardia for
elective cardioversion. Which of the following medications should the nurse
instruct the client to withhold for 48 hr prior to cardioversion?
A. Enoxaparin
B. Metformin
C. Diazepam
D. Digoxin: D. digoxin
Cardiac glycosides, such as digoxin, are withheld prior to cardioversion. These
medications can increase ventricular irritability and put the client at risk for ventricular
fibrillation after the synchronized countershock of cardioversion
6. _______ are usually given prior to cardioversion to reduce anxiety and
minimize discomfort with the procedure.: Sedatives like diazepam
7. Metformin is held before what kind of procedures? Example? Why?: Ones
that involve contrast dye like cardiac catheterization, in order to prevent kidney
damage.
8. __________ prevent blood clots that can be released into the circulatory
system after cardioversion.: Anticoagulants like enoxaparin
9. What kind of drugs are withheld prior to cardioversion?: cardiac glycosides
like digoxin
, ATI Med Surg
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_h6iot5
10. exopthalmosis: condition produced by hyperthyroidism in which the eyeballs
protrude beyond their normal protective orbit because of swelling in the tissues
behind them
11. entropion: the inversion of the edge of an eyelid
12. ectropion: the eversion of the edge of an eyelid
13. ptosis: drooping
14. A nurse is caring for a client who has emphysema and is receiving mechan-
ical ventilation. The client appears anxious and restless, and the high-pressure
alarm is sounding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain ABGs.
B. Administer propofol to the client.
C. Instruct the client to allow the machine to breathe for them.
D. Disconnect the machine and manually ventilate the client.: C. Instruct the
client to allow the machine to breathe for them. When providing client care, the nurse
should first use the least restrictive intervention. Therefore, the first action the nurse
should take is to provide verbal instructions and emotional support to help the client
relax and allow the ventilator to work. Clients can exhibit anxiety and restlessness
when trying to "fight the ventilator."
15. A nurse is caring for a client who has a potassium level of 3. Which of the
following assessment findings should the nurse expect?
A. Positive Trousseau's sign
B. 4+ deep tendon reflexes
C. Deep respirations
D. Hypoactive bowel sounds: D. Hypoactive bowel sounds
16. Deep tendon reflexes are used to monitor what electrolyte level?: magne-
sium
17. What kind of respirations occur with hypokalemia and why?: shallow respi-
rations due to respiratory muscle weakness
18. Trosseau's sign evaluates for what electrolyte imbalances?: hypocalcelmia
and hypomagnesemia
, ATI Med Surg
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_h6iot5
19. What is hypokalemia's effect on the GI system?: It decreases smooth muscle
contraction leading to decreased peristalsis and hypoactive bowel sounds.
20. Deep tendon reflexes in hypomagnesemia: increased e.g. 4+
21. Deep tendon reflexes in hypermagnesemia: decreased e.g. absent or 1+
22. What should be done if you are performing a cardiac assessment on a
client and you hear a murmur?: Listen with the client on their left side so it can be
heard more clearly
23. A nurse is conducting an admission history for a client who is to undergo
a CT scan with an IV contrast agent. The nurse should identify that which of
the following findings requires further assessment?
A. History of asthma
B. Appendectomy 1 year ago
C. Penicillin allergy
D. Total knee arthroplasty 6 months ago: A. History of asthma
A client who has a history of asthma has a greater risk of reacting to the contrast dye
used during the procedure. Other conditions that can result in a reaction to contrast
media include allergies to foods, such as shellfish, eggs, milk, and chocolate.
24. What are conditions that may cause a reaction to contrast media? Patients
with these conditions require further screening before a procedure with IV
contrast.: history of asthma and allergies to shellfish, eggs, milk, and chocolate
25. What drugs would warrant further screening for increased risk of renal
damage in someone getting a procedure with IV contrast?: aminoglycosides,
NSAIDs, metformin
26. Patients with what conditions have an increased risk for renal damage from
a procedure with IV contrast?: history of diabetes mellitus, renal impairment, or
heart failure
27. A nurse is an ED is reviewing the provider's prescriptions for a client
who sustained a rattlesnake bite to the lower leg. Which of the following
prescriptions should the nurse expect?
A. Apply ice to the clients puncture wounds
B. Initiate corticosteroid therapy for the client
C. Keep the client's leg above heart level
D. Administer an opioid analgesic to the client: D. Administer an opioid analgesic
to the client
Expect an opioid analgesic to promote comfort in someone with a rattlesnake bite.
28. What critter should you apply ice to the bite of and why?: a black widow
spider bite in order to reduce the action of the neurotoxin
