Medical Physiology and Pharmacology 2025 EXAM QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS 100% CORRECT ANSWERS A+ GRADED ALREADY PASSED

which definition best describes a lead compound - Correct Ans-the first compound discovered to have the desired activity which method of discovering a drug is generally the least expensive - Correct Ans-molecular docking what is the name of the process that involves step-wise alteration of a drug to improve its properties - Correct Ans-structure activity relationship what was the estimated research and development expenses of pharma in 2016 - Correct Ans-60 billion which branch of pharmacology studies the effect of the body on drugs - Correct Ans-pharmacokinetics which branch of pharmacology studies how patients respond differently to drugs - Correct Ans-pharmacogenetics which branch of pharmacology studies the desired effect of drugs on the body, usually at the molecular level - Correct Ans-pharmacodynamics which branch of pharmacology studies adverse effects of drugs on the body - Correct Ans-toxicology which branch of pharmacology does excretion fall under - Correct Ans-pharmacokinetics which is the chemical name for a popular OTC pain killer - Correct Ans-N-acetyl-para-aminophenol which stage of translational research is the first to utilize a FDA approved drug - Correct Ans-T3 the transition between which two phases of translational research involves switching from controlled settings real-world setting - Correct Ans-T2-T3 which type of drug is most likely to be given orally - Correct Ans-small molecule overnight contact lenses are considered ? medical devices - Correct Ans-class III which term describes the process of taking a piece of humor tumor from a patient and placing it under the skin of a mouse in order to do pre-clinical testing - Correct Ans-patient-derived xenograft in order to do a clinical trial in humans, IRB approval must be obtained. From which regulatory body must approval be obtained in order to carry out a similar study in rats? - Correct Ans-IACUC gaining information on which of the following is the primary purpose of a Phase I clinical trial - Correct Ans-treatment safety which of the following requires direct action by a patient (or their guardian) before they can be enrolled in a phase I clinical trial - Correct Ans-informed consent in which type of clinical trial is a MTD most likely to be determined - Correct Ans-phase 1 what government agency regulates phase I clinical trials in the US - Correct Ans-FDA a clinical trial for the use of a new pain killer in terminal cancer patients who have been admitted to hospice would be considered what type of clinical trial - Correct Ans-quality of life trial how many groups of patients would be required for a placebo-controlled factorial trial to test combinations of three drugs - Correct Ans-8 in which type of clinical trial is every patient guaranteed to receive active drug - Correct Ans-cross-over trial exclusion criteria for a clinical trial for a new therapy for pediatric leukemia - Correct Ans-patient is greater than 12 years old the most common target of drugs is - Correct Ans-receptors Gleevac targets - Correct Ans-enzymes a diabetic receives an injection of insulin. Once the insulin reaches the pancreas, how long do you expect it to take before a response can be measured - Correct Ans-minutes a dose of agonist occupies 30% of receptors and gives an effect of 50. According to the occupancy theory, what effect would you expect from a dose that occupies 90% of receptors - Correct Ans-150 most drugs bind in such a way that it is reversible without a chemical reaction. These drugs must therefore lack which type of bond with their targets - Correct Ans-covalent drug A requires 15 micromolar to reach 50% of its maximum response while drug B requires 50 micromolar to reach 50% of its maximum response, which drug is more potent - Correct Ans-drug A drug A requires 15 micromolar to reach 50% of its maximum response while drug B requires 50 micromolar to reach 50% of its maximum response, which drug is more effective - Correct Ans-cannot tell which term describes a molecule that produces an effect when binding a receptor but is incapable of inducing 100% effect - Correct Ans-partial agonist the addition of a competitive antagonist will affect the apparent ? of an agonist - Correct Ans-potency the addition of a non-competitive antagonist will affect the apparent ? of an agonist - Correct Ans-efficacy when drug A, an agonist, is given chronically, larger and larger concentrations are needed in order to achieve the same effect. which phenomenon is likely occurring - Correct Ans-desensitization which type of response curve would you look at if you wanted to know the exact response predicted in a controlled system at a specified drug concentration - Correct Ans-graded concentration response when developing a new drug, do you generally want a high or low therapeutic index - Correct Ans-high aspirin has an ED50=5mg/dl and a TD50=100mg/dl what is the therapeutic index of aspirin - Correct Ans-20 through which routes of administration will at least some first-pass metabolism occur - Correct Ans-oral, rectal would you expect aspirin to be absorbed better at high or low pH - Correct Ans-low pH would you expect a more polar or nonpolar drug to have more bioavailability - Correct Ans-nonpolar assuming the same lipophilicity and that all are neutrally charged which drug would you expect to have the best membrane permeability - Correct Ans-tylenol which family of enzymes catalyzes the majority of phase I drug metabolism - Correct Ans-CYPs codeine undergoes which type of phase I metabolism reaction - Correct Ans-dealkylation tylenol undergoes which type of phase II metabolism reaction - Correct Ans-sulfation the majority of drug excretion occurs in which organ - Correct Ans-kidney biliary excretion occurs in which organ - Correct Ans-liver imagine a drug with kEL=1.2 hr, clearance=14.4 L/hr, and Vd=12L/kg what loading dose would be required to achieve a 2mg/L concentration in a 30kg patient - Correct Ans-720 after a single dose, a drugs concentration in the plasma is measured to be 10mg/L. After one hour the plasma concentration is measured to be 5mg/L. How many hours will it take for the plasma concentration to reach 0.02mg/L assuming first-order metabolism - Correct Ans-9 imagine a drug with kEL=1.2 hr, clearance=14.4L/hr and Vd=12L/kg. Assuming constant infusion of drug, roughly how long would it take for the drug concentration to reach steady-state - Correct Ans-3 hr imagine a drug with kEL=1.2 hr, clearance=14.4L/hr and Vd=12L/kg. In order to achieve a steady-state plasma concentration of 2mg/L, how large should each maintenance dose be if a 30kg patient is going to take an oral dose every 12 hours. - Correct Ans-346 mg a physician walks into a patient room and can immediately draw conclusions regarding which one of the following sources of individuality in terms of drug response - Correct Ans-condition or state of being at which age would you expect a patient have the highest levels of P450 activity - Correct Ans-50 years prilosec is a substrate for P450 enzymes. Ingesting which of the following would likely increase its metabolism - Correct Ans-grilled hotdog genetics can influence which branch of pharmacology - Correct Ans-kinetics and dynamics which drug has an adverse interaction with Xanax - Correct Ans-indinavir events occurring if a single SNP exists - Correct Ans-truncated drug metabolizing enzyme, a leucine changed to phenylalanine in a receptor that prevents drug inhibiting, there would be no observable change in protein sequence or structure a TB patient is not responding to isoniazid treatment. The physician takes a DNA sample from the patient and sends it for testing. What gene is she likely having genotyped - Correct Ans-N-acetyl transferase genetic changes may lead to which of the following - Correct Ans-increased sensitivity of CML to Gleevac, decreased sensitivity of CML to Gleevac a breast cancer patient is undergoing tamoxifen treatment. If she has a polymorphism of CYP2D6 that leads to decreased enzyme activity what occurs - Correct Ans-she be prescribed a higher dose of tamoxifen patients taking plavix often are genotyped for which gene - Correct Ans-CYP2C19 a patient's CYP2C9 gene is sequenced from beginning to end. Which of the following genetic variants could possible be found using this technique, assuming they all exist - Correct Ans-SNPs, Indels would a patient with overactive VKORC1 need a higher, lower, or equal dose of warfarin compared to someone with normal VKORC1 - Correct Ans-higher melanoma patients often have their BRAF gene sequenced prior to treatment with vemurafinib. For which patient would vemurafinib treatment be prescribed - Correct Ans-a patient with mutant BRAF what part of a neuron carries an action potential to another cell - Correct Ans-axon at a chemical synapse, ? flows into the presynaptic cell and ? flows into the postsynaptic cell - Correct Ans-Ca, Na which type of neuroglia provide myelin sheath in the CNS - Correct Ans-oligodendrocytes what type of cell junction primarily contributes to the function of the BBB - Correct Ans-tight junction the two hemispheres of the brain are separated by what place - Correct Ans-midsagittal nerves are found only in the - Correct Ans-PNS when transmitting a signal, which fiber always comes first - Correct Ans-afferent fiber which lobe of the brain is located the post posteriorly - Correct Ans-occipital lobe what cranial nerve innervates the intestines - Correct Ans-vagus a blow to the back of the head is most likely to affect what function - Correct Ans-motor function action potentials in the dorsal portion of the spinal cord move in what direction? Assume the signal is a communication that either starts or stops in the brain - Correct Ans-superiorly which neurotransmitter is found in the sympathetic, parasympathetic, and somatic nervous system - Correct Ans-ACh which type of receptors are found in the effectors of both the sympathetic and parasympathetic portions of the ANS - Correct Ans-muscarinic how many molecules of ACh is a nAChR capable of binding - Correct Ans-5 when a nAChR binds ACh, what are the odds that the channel will open rather than become desensitized - Correct Ans-10:1 which endogenous agonist binds to receptors in the eye and is responsible for the constriction of the iris - Correct Ans-acetylcholine increased parasympathetic tone would be expected to have what effect on arterioles - Correct Ans-dilation a patient that is prone to diarrhea would like have increased ? tone - Correct Ans-parasympathetic which type of receptor is most directly responsible for BO - Correct Ans-adrenergic where in the ANS would you expect reserpine to act - Correct Ans-between the postganglionic neuron and effector an influx of which ion induces the release of ACh from a neuron - Correct Ans-Ca Chantix specifically actives the - Correct Ans-nAChR which muscarinic agonist would be most likely to be prescribed to treat dry mouth - Correct Ans-pilocarpine a patient that is in respiratory distress is likely to be given - Correct Ans-a muscarinic antagonist what occurs when a person is given a systemic cholinesterase inhibitor - Correct Ans-increased activation of nAChRs and mAChRs