1. A client with hypothyroidism takes levothyroxine. Which
statement indicates effective therapy?
A. “I feel cold all the time.”
B. “My heart rate is slower than usual.”
C. “I have more energy now.”
D. “I’m gaining weight quickly.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Increased energy suggests improved thyroid
function.
2. A child prescribed methylphenidate for ADHD should be
monitored for which effect?
A. Drowsiness
B. Increased appetite
C. Weight loss and insomnia
D. Bradycardia
Answer: C
Rationale: Stimulants like methylphenidate commonly cause
decreased appetite, insomnia, and weight loss.
3. A client taking warfarin has an INR of 4.2. Which action
should
the nurse take?
A. Administer the next dose of warfarin
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
C. Give vitamin K IV immediately
D. Prepare for platelet transfusion
Answer: B
Rationale: An INR >3.0 indicates increased bleeding risk.
The
nurse should hold the medication and notify the provider.
4. A nurse is administering digoxin to a client. Which finding
requires immediate action?
A. HR 62 bpm
B. Blurred vision with yellow halos
C. BP 140/88 mmHg
D. Urine output 400 mL in 8 hours
Answer: B
Rationale: Visual disturbances and halos are signs of
digoxin
toxicity, especially when paired with bradycardia.
5. A client is receiving morphine IV post-op. Which finding
is the
priority?
A. Nausea
B. Respiratory rate of 8/min
, C. Itching
D. Sedation score of 2
Answer: B
Rationale: Respiratory depression (<12/min) is the most life
threatening side effect of opioids.
6. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH,
T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
7. A nurse is caring for a client on glipizide. Which
statement
indicates understanding?
A. “I can skip meals if I’m not hungry.”
B. “This medication will not cause low blood sugar.”
C. “I will avoid alcohol while taking this.”
D. “I can take this with grapefruit juice.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Alcohol with glipizide increases the risk of
hypoglycemia and a disulfiram-like reaction.
8. A client taking haloperidol develops a high fever and
muscle
rigidity. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Serotonin syndrome
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
Answer: B
Rationale: NMS is a rare but fatal reaction to antipsychotics.
Requires immediate intervention.
9. A client is started on lorazepam for anxiety. Which
teaching
point is essential?
A. “Avoid grapefruit juice.”
B. “Take with NSAIDs.”
C. “Do not stop abruptly.”
D. “It may take weeks to work.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Benzodiazepines must be tapered to prevent
withdrawal symptoms and seizures.
statement indicates effective therapy?
A. “I feel cold all the time.”
B. “My heart rate is slower than usual.”
C. “I have more energy now.”
D. “I’m gaining weight quickly.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Increased energy suggests improved thyroid
function.
2. A child prescribed methylphenidate for ADHD should be
monitored for which effect?
A. Drowsiness
B. Increased appetite
C. Weight loss and insomnia
D. Bradycardia
Answer: C
Rationale: Stimulants like methylphenidate commonly cause
decreased appetite, insomnia, and weight loss.
3. A client taking warfarin has an INR of 4.2. Which action
should
the nurse take?
A. Administer the next dose of warfarin
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
C. Give vitamin K IV immediately
D. Prepare for platelet transfusion
Answer: B
Rationale: An INR >3.0 indicates increased bleeding risk.
The
nurse should hold the medication and notify the provider.
4. A nurse is administering digoxin to a client. Which finding
requires immediate action?
A. HR 62 bpm
B. Blurred vision with yellow halos
C. BP 140/88 mmHg
D. Urine output 400 mL in 8 hours
Answer: B
Rationale: Visual disturbances and halos are signs of
digoxin
toxicity, especially when paired with bradycardia.
5. A client is receiving morphine IV post-op. Which finding
is the
priority?
A. Nausea
B. Respiratory rate of 8/min
, C. Itching
D. Sedation score of 2
Answer: B
Rationale: Respiratory depression (<12/min) is the most life
threatening side effect of opioids.
6. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH,
T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
7. A nurse is caring for a client on glipizide. Which
statement
indicates understanding?
A. “I can skip meals if I’m not hungry.”
B. “This medication will not cause low blood sugar.”
C. “I will avoid alcohol while taking this.”
D. “I can take this with grapefruit juice.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Alcohol with glipizide increases the risk of
hypoglycemia and a disulfiram-like reaction.
8. A client taking haloperidol develops a high fever and
muscle
rigidity. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Serotonin syndrome
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
Answer: B
Rationale: NMS is a rare but fatal reaction to antipsychotics.
Requires immediate intervention.
9. A client is started on lorazepam for anxiety. Which
teaching
point is essential?
A. “Avoid grapefruit juice.”
B. “Take with NSAIDs.”
C. “Do not stop abruptly.”
D. “It may take weeks to work.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Benzodiazepines must be tapered to prevent
withdrawal symptoms and seizures.
