1. A client taking haloperidol develops a high fever and
muscle
rigidity. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Serotonin syndrome
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
Answer: B
Rationale: NMS is a rare but fatal reaction to antipsychotics.
Requires immediate intervention.
2. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH,
T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
3. A client asks about insulin glargine (Lantus). What is the
correct response?
A. “It works immediately.”
B. “It peaks in 4 hours.”
C. “It has no peak and lasts 24 hours.”
D. “It must be mixed with regular insulin.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Glargine is a long-acting insulin with no
pronounced
peak, providing steady glucose control.
4. A client started on fluoxetine 5 days ago reports
increased
energy and planning their funeral. What should the nurse
do?
A. Encourage journaling
B. Monitor sleep
C. Notify the provider immediately
D. Provide distraction techniques
Answer: C
Rationale: Increased energy + suicidal ideation early in SSRI
therapy is dangerous and should be reported.
5. A client is using a scopolamine patch for motion sickness.
What side effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Diarrhea
, B. Blurred vision and dry mouth
C. Rash
D. Hearing loss
Answer: B
Rationale: Scopolamine has anticholinergic effects like dry
mouth,
blurred vision, and urinary retention.
6. A nurse gives regular insulin subcutaneously at 0700. At
what
time should the nurse monitor for signs of hypoglycemia?
A. 0715
B. 0800
C. 0930
D. 1200
Answer: C
Rationale: Regular insulin peaks in 2–4 hours. Hypoglycemia
is
most likely around 0930–1100.
7. A client on lithium therapy has a sodium level of 128
mEq/L.
What is the nurse's best action?
A. Encourage low-sodium diet
B. Administer next dose
C. Hold the dose and notify the provider
D. Increase fluid restriction
Answer: C
Rationale: Hyponatremia can increase lithium toxicity risk.
Hold
the dose and notify the provider.
8. A nurse teaches a client taking cyclobenzaprine. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A. “I will take this long-term.”
B. “I can drink alcohol in moderation.”
C. “I should avoid driving until I know how it affects me.”
D. “It will help my heart condition.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Cyclobenzaprine causes drowsiness. Clients
should
avoid driving or alcohol initially.
9. A nurse is teaching a client how to apply clotrimazole
vaginal
cream. What instruction is correct?
A. Use during menstruation
B. Stop once symptoms go away
C. Use applicator at bedtime
D. Use with a tampon
muscle
rigidity. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Serotonin syndrome
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
Answer: B
Rationale: NMS is a rare but fatal reaction to antipsychotics.
Requires immediate intervention.
2. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH,
T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
3. A client asks about insulin glargine (Lantus). What is the
correct response?
A. “It works immediately.”
B. “It peaks in 4 hours.”
C. “It has no peak and lasts 24 hours.”
D. “It must be mixed with regular insulin.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Glargine is a long-acting insulin with no
pronounced
peak, providing steady glucose control.
4. A client started on fluoxetine 5 days ago reports
increased
energy and planning their funeral. What should the nurse
do?
A. Encourage journaling
B. Monitor sleep
C. Notify the provider immediately
D. Provide distraction techniques
Answer: C
Rationale: Increased energy + suicidal ideation early in SSRI
therapy is dangerous and should be reported.
5. A client is using a scopolamine patch for motion sickness.
What side effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Diarrhea
, B. Blurred vision and dry mouth
C. Rash
D. Hearing loss
Answer: B
Rationale: Scopolamine has anticholinergic effects like dry
mouth,
blurred vision, and urinary retention.
6. A nurse gives regular insulin subcutaneously at 0700. At
what
time should the nurse monitor for signs of hypoglycemia?
A. 0715
B. 0800
C. 0930
D. 1200
Answer: C
Rationale: Regular insulin peaks in 2–4 hours. Hypoglycemia
is
most likely around 0930–1100.
7. A client on lithium therapy has a sodium level of 128
mEq/L.
What is the nurse's best action?
A. Encourage low-sodium diet
B. Administer next dose
C. Hold the dose and notify the provider
D. Increase fluid restriction
Answer: C
Rationale: Hyponatremia can increase lithium toxicity risk.
Hold
the dose and notify the provider.
8. A nurse teaches a client taking cyclobenzaprine. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A. “I will take this long-term.”
B. “I can drink alcohol in moderation.”
C. “I should avoid driving until I know how it affects me.”
D. “It will help my heart condition.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Cyclobenzaprine causes drowsiness. Clients
should
avoid driving or alcohol initially.
9. A nurse is teaching a client how to apply clotrimazole
vaginal
cream. What instruction is correct?
A. Use during menstruation
B. Stop once symptoms go away
C. Use applicator at bedtime
D. Use with a tampon
