Ecpi, Charleston Nur 138 pharmacology
FINAL!!! Questions With Complete Solutions
Course
Nur 138
1. A patient is prescribed lisinopril. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for
most closely?
A. Bradycardia
B. Constipation
C. Dry cough
D. Hypoglycemia
Answer: C. Dry cough
Rationale: ACE inhibitors like lisinopril often cause a persistent dry cough due to bradykinin
buildup.
2. A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which lab value must be
monitored regularly?
A. Hemoglobin A1c
B. Potassium
C. INR
D. Platelet count
Answer: C. INR
Rationale: INR is used to monitor warfarin's effectiveness and safety; target range is typically
2.0–3.0.
3. Which of the following medications is classified as a beta-blocker?
A. Amlodipine
B. Losartan
C. Metoprolol
D. Furosemide
Answer: C. Metoprolol
Rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-1 selective blocker that reduces heart rate and myocardial
workload.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer insulin lispro. When should the nurse expect the
insulin to begin working?
A. 30–60 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 2–4 hours
D. 6–8 hours
,Answer: B. 15 minutes
Rationale: Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin; onset is around 15 minutes, requiring administration
right before meals.
5. A patient on digoxin presents with nausea, blurred vision, and bradycardia. What is the
nurse’s priority action?
A. Administer the next dose with food
B. Check the digoxin level
C. Encourage oral fluids
D. Increase potassium intake
Answer: B. Check the digoxin level
Rationale: These are classic signs of digoxin toxicity; verify blood levels before proceeding.
6. A nurse is teaching about albuterol inhaler use. Which statement by the patient indicates
understanding?
A. “I’ll use it every night before bed.”
B. “I use it before exercise if I feel short of breath.”
C. “I only use it when I take my steroid inhaler.”
D. “I don’t need to rinse my mouth after using it.”
Answer: B. “I use it before exercise if I feel short of breath.”
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting rescue inhaler used before exertion or during acute
symptoms.
7. Which lab result is most concerning for a patient taking furosemide?
A. Sodium 138 mEq/L
B. Potassium 2.9 mEq/L
C. Chloride 98 mEq/L
D. BUN 18 mg/dL
Answer: B. Potassium 2.9 mEq/L
Rationale: Furosemide causes potassium loss. Hypokalemia increases risk of arrhythmias and
digoxin toxicity.
8. Which medication must never be given with sildenafil (Viagra) due to risk of fatal
hypotension?
A. Atorvastatin
B. Nitroglycerin
C. Metformin
D. Aspirin
, Answer: B. Nitroglycerin
Rationale: Both drugs lower blood pressure via vasodilation. Combined use can cause life-
threatening hypotension.
9. A nurse gives 4 units of regular insulin IV push to a hyperkalemic patient. What effect is
expected?
A. The potassium level will rise
B. Glucose will increase
C. Potassium will shift into cells
D. Insulin is ineffective for potassium
Answer: C. Potassium will shift into cells
Rationale: Insulin drives potassium intracellularly, temporarily lowering serum potassium levels.
10. A patient is prescribed levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. What is the best time to
administer the dose?
A. At bedtime with a snack
B. After a high-fiber breakfast
C. Before breakfast on an empty stomach
D. With lunch
Answer: C. Before breakfast on an empty stomach
Rationale: Absorption is maximized when taken on an empty stomach, 30–60 minutes before
food.
11. Which adverse effect is most associated with opioid analgesics like morphine?
A. Tachycardia
B. Diarrhea
C. Respiratory depression
D. Hypertension
Answer: C. Respiratory depression
Rationale: Opioids depress the CNS, and high doses can dangerously reduce respiratory rate.
Monitor closely.
12. A patient is prescribed vancomycin IV. Which action is most important?
A. Give rapidly over 10 minutes
B. Monitor hearing and kidney function
C. Restrict fluids
D. Encourage dairy intake
Answer: B. Monitor hearing and kidney function
FINAL!!! Questions With Complete Solutions
Course
Nur 138
1. A patient is prescribed lisinopril. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for
most closely?
A. Bradycardia
B. Constipation
C. Dry cough
D. Hypoglycemia
Answer: C. Dry cough
Rationale: ACE inhibitors like lisinopril often cause a persistent dry cough due to bradykinin
buildup.
2. A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which lab value must be
monitored regularly?
A. Hemoglobin A1c
B. Potassium
C. INR
D. Platelet count
Answer: C. INR
Rationale: INR is used to monitor warfarin's effectiveness and safety; target range is typically
2.0–3.0.
3. Which of the following medications is classified as a beta-blocker?
A. Amlodipine
B. Losartan
C. Metoprolol
D. Furosemide
Answer: C. Metoprolol
Rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-1 selective blocker that reduces heart rate and myocardial
workload.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer insulin lispro. When should the nurse expect the
insulin to begin working?
A. 30–60 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 2–4 hours
D. 6–8 hours
,Answer: B. 15 minutes
Rationale: Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin; onset is around 15 minutes, requiring administration
right before meals.
5. A patient on digoxin presents with nausea, blurred vision, and bradycardia. What is the
nurse’s priority action?
A. Administer the next dose with food
B. Check the digoxin level
C. Encourage oral fluids
D. Increase potassium intake
Answer: B. Check the digoxin level
Rationale: These are classic signs of digoxin toxicity; verify blood levels before proceeding.
6. A nurse is teaching about albuterol inhaler use. Which statement by the patient indicates
understanding?
A. “I’ll use it every night before bed.”
B. “I use it before exercise if I feel short of breath.”
C. “I only use it when I take my steroid inhaler.”
D. “I don’t need to rinse my mouth after using it.”
Answer: B. “I use it before exercise if I feel short of breath.”
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting rescue inhaler used before exertion or during acute
symptoms.
7. Which lab result is most concerning for a patient taking furosemide?
A. Sodium 138 mEq/L
B. Potassium 2.9 mEq/L
C. Chloride 98 mEq/L
D. BUN 18 mg/dL
Answer: B. Potassium 2.9 mEq/L
Rationale: Furosemide causes potassium loss. Hypokalemia increases risk of arrhythmias and
digoxin toxicity.
8. Which medication must never be given with sildenafil (Viagra) due to risk of fatal
hypotension?
A. Atorvastatin
B. Nitroglycerin
C. Metformin
D. Aspirin
, Answer: B. Nitroglycerin
Rationale: Both drugs lower blood pressure via vasodilation. Combined use can cause life-
threatening hypotension.
9. A nurse gives 4 units of regular insulin IV push to a hyperkalemic patient. What effect is
expected?
A. The potassium level will rise
B. Glucose will increase
C. Potassium will shift into cells
D. Insulin is ineffective for potassium
Answer: C. Potassium will shift into cells
Rationale: Insulin drives potassium intracellularly, temporarily lowering serum potassium levels.
10. A patient is prescribed levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. What is the best time to
administer the dose?
A. At bedtime with a snack
B. After a high-fiber breakfast
C. Before breakfast on an empty stomach
D. With lunch
Answer: C. Before breakfast on an empty stomach
Rationale: Absorption is maximized when taken on an empty stomach, 30–60 minutes before
food.
11. Which adverse effect is most associated with opioid analgesics like morphine?
A. Tachycardia
B. Diarrhea
C. Respiratory depression
D. Hypertension
Answer: C. Respiratory depression
Rationale: Opioids depress the CNS, and high doses can dangerously reduce respiratory rate.
Monitor closely.
12. A patient is prescribed vancomycin IV. Which action is most important?
A. Give rapidly over 10 minutes
B. Monitor hearing and kidney function
C. Restrict fluids
D. Encourage dairy intake
Answer: B. Monitor hearing and kidney function
