ABFAS BOARD EXAM 2025 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A
A 45-year-old male sustained a crush-type injury with early soft tissue necrosis to the left foot.
Radiographs are negative for fracture or dislocation. Which of the following tests would be most
helpful for determining skin-flap viability?
fluorescein dye study.
distal plethysmography.
segmental pressure gradients.
indium scan. - (ANSWER)Rationale: Fluorescein dye studies might not be routinely ordered,
but of the available answer choices, this would provide the best information on soft tissue
viability following a crush injury. Digital plethysmography and segmental pressure gradient
would provide information about macrovascular perfusion, but not microvascular skin-flap tissue
viability. An indium scan is non-specific for skin-flap viability.
A patient presents eight weeks after sustaining a fracture through the talar neck. Which finding is
a prognostic indicator that the vascular supply is intact?
resorption of subchondral bone of the talar dome.
increased trabecular pattern across the fracture.
increased sclerosis of the talar body.
absence of degenerative arthritis. - (ANSWER)Resorption or subchondral lucency of the talar
dome usually indicates that there is sufficient vascularity in the talus, often termed Hawkins sign.
Increased sclerosis of the talar body may suggest avascular necrosis. Absence of degenerative
arthritis and increased trabecular pattern across the fracture are not prognostic findings for an
intact vascular supply.
For which condition is a bone stimulator most efficacious?
synovial pseudarthrosis.
, hypertrophic nonunion.
fibrous nonunion.
fibrous malunion. - (ANSWER)Rationale: Hypertrophic nonunion is the most appropriate
answer choice for a bone stimulator because it is the only non union amongst the available
answer choices listed that theoretically has sufficient vascularity to heal. A hypertrophic non
union may be lacking stability or normal axial alignment, but is able to heal at a cellular level.
Synovial pseudoarthrosis, fibrous non union and malunion are all caused by inadequate
immobilization and inadequate blood supply and may be more limited in its ability to heal.
A 25-year-old female sustained an inversion ankle sprain 24 hours ago. The area is severely
edematous and ecchymotic. Diagnostic tests show rupture of the lateral collateral ligaments.
What should the treatment consist of at this time?
compression dressing for 24 to 48 hours.
open ligament repair.
posterior splint and warm compresses for 24 to 48 hours.
short leg walking cast. - (ANSWER)Acute soft-tissue ankle injuries), Rationale: Compression
dressing for 24 to 48 hours is the best answer. An open ligament repair is not indicated this early
due to the severe edema. A posterior splint may be indicated but the warm compress is not
indicated, as icing would be more appropriate. A short leg cast can be used however the patient
has severe edema so this is not the best answer as it does not address the swelling.
A 30-year-old male complains of a painful right ankle after sustaining a forced plantarflexion
injury. Plantarflexion of the foot and dorsiflexion of the hallux greatly exacerbate the symptoms
of pain at the posterior ankle. What is the most probable diagnosis?
flexor digitorum longus tendinitis.
fracture of the sustentaculum tali.
fracture of the posterior lip of the tibia.
fracture of the posterior tubercle of the talus. - (ANSWER)Rationale: The injury mechanism,
combined with the current symptoms point to an injury at the posterior ankle, specifically
fracture of the posterior tubercle of the talus, irritated by movement of the flexor hallucis longus
tendon. Flexor digitorum longus tendinitis is incorrect since the patient indicates he has pain with
great toe motion. Fracture of the sustentaculum tali is incorrect since the patient expresses pain at
the posterior ankle, not medial. Fracture of the posterior lip of the tibia is incorrect since pain
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A
A 45-year-old male sustained a crush-type injury with early soft tissue necrosis to the left foot.
Radiographs are negative for fracture or dislocation. Which of the following tests would be most
helpful for determining skin-flap viability?
fluorescein dye study.
distal plethysmography.
segmental pressure gradients.
indium scan. - (ANSWER)Rationale: Fluorescein dye studies might not be routinely ordered,
but of the available answer choices, this would provide the best information on soft tissue
viability following a crush injury. Digital plethysmography and segmental pressure gradient
would provide information about macrovascular perfusion, but not microvascular skin-flap tissue
viability. An indium scan is non-specific for skin-flap viability.
A patient presents eight weeks after sustaining a fracture through the talar neck. Which finding is
a prognostic indicator that the vascular supply is intact?
resorption of subchondral bone of the talar dome.
increased trabecular pattern across the fracture.
increased sclerosis of the talar body.
absence of degenerative arthritis. - (ANSWER)Resorption or subchondral lucency of the talar
dome usually indicates that there is sufficient vascularity in the talus, often termed Hawkins sign.
Increased sclerosis of the talar body may suggest avascular necrosis. Absence of degenerative
arthritis and increased trabecular pattern across the fracture are not prognostic findings for an
intact vascular supply.
For which condition is a bone stimulator most efficacious?
synovial pseudarthrosis.
, hypertrophic nonunion.
fibrous nonunion.
fibrous malunion. - (ANSWER)Rationale: Hypertrophic nonunion is the most appropriate
answer choice for a bone stimulator because it is the only non union amongst the available
answer choices listed that theoretically has sufficient vascularity to heal. A hypertrophic non
union may be lacking stability or normal axial alignment, but is able to heal at a cellular level.
Synovial pseudoarthrosis, fibrous non union and malunion are all caused by inadequate
immobilization and inadequate blood supply and may be more limited in its ability to heal.
A 25-year-old female sustained an inversion ankle sprain 24 hours ago. The area is severely
edematous and ecchymotic. Diagnostic tests show rupture of the lateral collateral ligaments.
What should the treatment consist of at this time?
compression dressing for 24 to 48 hours.
open ligament repair.
posterior splint and warm compresses for 24 to 48 hours.
short leg walking cast. - (ANSWER)Acute soft-tissue ankle injuries), Rationale: Compression
dressing for 24 to 48 hours is the best answer. An open ligament repair is not indicated this early
due to the severe edema. A posterior splint may be indicated but the warm compress is not
indicated, as icing would be more appropriate. A short leg cast can be used however the patient
has severe edema so this is not the best answer as it does not address the swelling.
A 30-year-old male complains of a painful right ankle after sustaining a forced plantarflexion
injury. Plantarflexion of the foot and dorsiflexion of the hallux greatly exacerbate the symptoms
of pain at the posterior ankle. What is the most probable diagnosis?
flexor digitorum longus tendinitis.
fracture of the sustentaculum tali.
fracture of the posterior lip of the tibia.
fracture of the posterior tubercle of the talus. - (ANSWER)Rationale: The injury mechanism,
combined with the current symptoms point to an injury at the posterior ankle, specifically
fracture of the posterior tubercle of the talus, irritated by movement of the flexor hallucis longus
tendon. Flexor digitorum longus tendinitis is incorrect since the patient indicates he has pain with
great toe motion. Fracture of the sustentaculum tali is incorrect since the patient expresses pain at
the posterior ankle, not medial. Fracture of the posterior lip of the tibia is incorrect since pain
