NSG 3007 Week 3 Quiz / NSG3007 Week 3 Quiz (Latest-2020): Foundations of Professional Nursing: South University |100% Correct Answers, Download to Score A|

NSG 3007 Week 3 Quiz MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following situations is an example of moral distress? a. You hear nurses in the lounge making off-color jokes about a patient. You are afraid to speak up for fear of retaliation. b. You have been late for work a couple of times in the last 2 weeks, and your co-workers are covering for you. c. You become romantically involved with a co-worker, which is against the unit policy, so you resign your position. d. You purposefully use vague language when explaining a patient's condition to the family. Staff expects that the patient may be brain-dead, but test results are not yet conclusive. ANS: A Feedback A The definition of "moral distress" is distress that results from participating in a perceived moral wrongdoing due to situational constraints despite attempting to make a moral choice. B There is no breach of ethics in being late and having co-workers cover for you. C The person acts appropriately to the moral issue by resigning the position. D The person is acting appropriately under current circumstances. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: p. 91 2. According to Kohlberg's theory of moral development, adolescents who shoplift are operating in which level of moral development? a. Preconventional b. Conventional c. Postconventional d. Developmental ANS: A Feedback A In Kohlberg's preconventional level of moral development, the individual is inattentive to the norms of society and is self-centered. B In the conventional level, moral decisions conform to the norms of society. C In the postconventional level, the individual has a highly developed moral value system independent of group norms. D "Developmental" is not a level of moral development identified by Kohlberg. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 93 3. According to Kohlberg's theory of moral development, individuals who act "because it is the rule of society" are operating in which level of moral development? a. Preconventional b. Conventional c. Postconventional d. Developmental ANS: B Feedback A In Kohlberg's preconventional level of moral development, the individual is inattentive to the norms of society and is self-centered. B In the conventional level, moral decisions conform to the norms of society. C In the postconventional level, the individual has a highly developed moral value system independent of group norms. D "Developmental" is not a level of moral development identified by Kohlberg. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 93 4. Flight 93, hijacked on September 11, 2001, crashed into the Pennsylvania countryside because some of the passengers decided to try to take control of the plane and prevent it from being used as a weapon of mass destruction against structures in Washington, D.C. They decided to act despite grave danger to themselves. This is an example of which level of Kohlberg's theory of moral development? a. Preconventional b. Conventional c. Postconventional d. Conventional phase 4 ANS: C Feedback A In the preconventional level, the person's self-interest takes precedence over group norms. B In the conventional level, the person conforms to group norms. C People in the postconventional level of moral development may ignore self-interest and group norms when making decisions and may sacrifice themselves for the group. D Phase 4 of the conventional level follows group and cultural norms. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: p. 93 5. According to Kohlberg's theory, which of the following is true of moral development? a. Participating in decision making promotes moral reasoning. b. Intellectual development has no effect on moral development. c. Participating in debates on ethical issues decreases moral development. d. Holding people responsible for their actions does not improve moral development. ANS: A Feedback A Kohlberg thought that certain conditions promote moral development, such as participating in decision making. B Kohlberg thought that intellectual development was necessary for advanced moral development. C Participating in debates on ethical issues does enhance moral development. D Taking responsibility for actions promotes moral development. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 93 6. Gilligan's theory on moral development differed from Kohlberg's theory because Gilligan considered which population not addressed by Kohlberg? a. Children b. Men c. Women d. Adolescents ANS: C Feedback A Kohlberg mostly tested his theory in men and boys. B Men were the focus of Kohlberg's theory. C Gilligan thought that Kohlberg's theory did not recognize the experience of women in moral development. D Gilligan's theory did not focus on adolescents. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 93 7. Which of the following ethical theories is illustrated by the example of following the Golden Rule, "Do unto others as you wish them to do unto you"? a. Deontology b. Principalism c. Utilitarianism d. Virtue ethics ANS: A Feedback A Deontology states that an act is moral if it originates from good will. B Principalism is the use of ethical principles in decision making. C Decisions are made based on what will do the greatest good for the greatest number of people. A main tenet of utilitarian ethics is that right or useful actions bring about the greatest good for the greatest number of people. D Virtue ethics refers to character traits of the decision maker, such as honesty, courage, kindness, and integrity. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 95 8. Which of the following ethical theories is illustrated by the example of triage in disaster nursing? a. Deontology b. Principalism c. Utilitarianism d. Virtue ethics ANS: C Feedback A Deontology states that an act is moral if it originates from good will. B Principalism is the use of ethical principles in decision making. C Triage in disasters requires decisions to be made on how to do the greatest good for the greatest number of people. A main tenet of utilitarian ethics is that right or useful actions bring about the greatest good for the greatest number of people. D Virtue ethics refers to character traits of the decision maker, such as honesty, courage, kindness, and integrity. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 95 9. Respecting the right of a patient with terminal cancer to refuse chemotherapy is based on a belief in the ethical principle of a. justice. b. autonomy. c. nonmaleficence. d. death with dignity. ANS: B Feedback A "Justice" refers to the equality of the allocation of services. B Autonomy is based on the principle that patients have the right to determine their own course of action. C "Nonmaleficence" refers to the responsibility to do no harm. D Death with dignity is not an ethical principle. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 97 10. Respecting an elderly woman's decision to stay in her own home is based on a belief in the ethical principle of a. justice. b. autonomy. c. nonmaleficence. d. death with dignity. ANS: B Feedback A "Justice" refers to the equality of the allocation of services. B Autonomy is based on the principle that patients have the right to determine their own course of action. C "Nonmaleficence" refers to the responsibility to do no harm. D Death with dignity is not an ethical principle. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 97 11. A school nurse teaching school-aged children about water safety is an example of which ethical principle? a. Beneficence b. Justice c. Veracity d. Autonomy ANS: A Feedback A Beneficence can be seen as "the doing of good." B "Justice" refers to the equal treatment of all. C Veracity is truth telling. D "Autonomy" refers to an individual's right to make his or her own decisions. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 97 12. A nurse who advocates for a longer stay when a medically indigent patient is being prematurely discharged to reduce hospital cost is relying on which ethical principle? a. Justice b. Beneficence c. Autonomy d. Fidelity ANS: A Feedback A "Justice" refers to the equal and fair allocation of services based on need. According to this principle, the patient should receive the same care as others in the same condition, regardless of ability to pay. B "Beneficence" simply refers to doing good. C Autonomy asserts that individuals have the right to make their own decisions. D "Fidelity" is an incomplete answer, because fidelity refers to faithfulness or honoring one's promises to patients. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 98 13. The current emphasis on eliminating racially based health disparities is based on which of the following ethical principles? a. Double effect b. Fidelity c. Justice d. Veracity ANS: C Feedback A Double effect is the concept that justifies inflicting harm if the intent is to produce an overall good effect. B "Fidelity" refers to honoring one's promises to patients. C The principle of justice states that equals should be treated the same. D Veracity is telling the truth. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 98 14. A nurse is turning a bedfast patient to prevent pressure ulcers. The patient complains that the process is painful. The nurse explains the reason for the turning schedule and completes the task. This is an example of the ethical principle of a. autonomy. b. fidelity. c. nonmaleficence. d. veracity. ANS: C Feedback A Autonomy has to do with individuals being able to make their own decisions. B "Fidelity" refers to honoring one's commitments and promises. C "Nonmaleficence" is defined as the duty to do no harm. Although temporarily painful, not turning the patient would cause actual harm (physical damage), and so this nurse is acting on the principle of nonmaleficence. D "Veracity" refers to being truthful. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: pp. 97-98 15. A patient who is terminally ill is experiencing great pain. To relieve the patient's suffering, the nurse needs to administer larger doses of morphine. This relieves the pain but also inhibits respiration. Which principle justifies the risk of harm? a. Justice b. Fidelity c. Veracity d. Double effect ANS: D Feedback A Justice relates to equal treatment of all. B Fidelity is faithfulness to one's commitments. C Veracity is being truthful. D The principle of double effect addresses actions that may result in a negative effect if the end result is good. The end point justifies the risk of harm. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: pp. 97-98 16. Taking a pediatric patient to the playroom on a promised time and day is based on the belief in the ethical principle of a. autonomy. b. fidelity. c. justice. d. veracity. ANS: B Feedback A Autonomy relates to the right of individuals to make their own decisions. B Fidelity is being faithful to commitments made to others. C "Justice" refers to the equal treatment of all. D Veracity is being truthful. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 99 17. When nurses receive a patient assignment and accept reports on these patients, they are committed to providing care to those assigned to them. This is based on the ethical principle of a. beneficence. b. fidelity. c. justice. d. veracity. ANS: B Feedback A Beneficence speaks to doing good. B Fidelity is being faithful or keeping commitments made to others. In accepting the assignment, the nurse has committed to caring for the patients assigned to her or him. C Justice is related to the equal treatment of all. D "Veracity" refers to one's truthfulness. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: pp. 98-99 18. Answering a terminally ill child's questions about his or her condition honestly is based on a belief in the ethical principle of a. autonomy. b. fidelity. c. justice. d. veracity. ANS: D Feedback A Autonomy relates to the right of an individual to make his or her own decisions. B "Fidelity" refers to being faithful to one's commitments. C "Justice" refers to the equal treatment of all. D "Veracity" is defined as telling the truth. Truthfulness is fundamental in the development and maintenance of trust in a relationship. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 99 19. A father of four is admitted after an automobile accident in which two of the children were killed. Recognizing that he is in very serious condition, the nurse believes that it would be appropriate to avoid telling him about the death of his children unless he asks directly. This could be considered a violation of the ethical principle of a. beneficence. b. fidelity. c. justice. d. veracity. ANS: D Feedback A Beneficence is the expectation of doing good. B "Fidelity" refers to keeping commitments and promises. C Justice is the treatment of all equally. D Veracity is truth telling. The nurse is not lying but is not forthcoming with the information about the children. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 99 20. Which of the following is the best description of a code of ethics? a. A document that describes the correct course of action and does not change regardless of societal changes b. A document that all professions must have even if not representative of practice c. A document that permits others to know what principles guide professional decision making d. A document widely open to interpretation by professionals in various settings ANS: C Feedback A Codes of ethics have been revised through the years to reflect changes in society. B Codes are useful only if upheld by members of the profession in their daily practice. C The Code of Ethics of nursing is an implied contract through which the profession informs society of the principles and rules by which it functions. D The Code of Ethics should be interpreted in a similar way regardless of practice setting. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 100 21. A nurse is involved in an ethically challenging case. To use an ethical decision-making model, which step should the nurse perform first? a. Gather and examine all possible solutions. b. Identify the ethical dilemma in the case. c. Identify all parties who will be impacted by the decision. d. Gather all information important to the situation ANS: B Feedback A The first step in many ethical decision-making models is to identify the ethical dilemma. Examining all possible solutions comes after this step and gathering information. B The first step in many ethical decision-making models is to identify the ethical dilemma. C The first step in many ethical decision-making models is to identify the ethical dilemma. Identifying parties affected is not a specific step but is part of identifying the dilemma. D The first step in many ethical decision-making models is to identify the ethical dilemma. The next step would be to gather all data related to the situation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 102 MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which of the following are activities in the ethical decision making process? (Select all that apply.) a. Avoid looking at legal cases or precedents related to the situation. b. Determine if the people who are affected by the dilemma have value conflicts. c. Brainstorm with others involved to identify all possible solutions. d. Evaluate the action taken to determine whether it accomplished its purpose. e. Discuss only acceptable solutions that are practical to implement. ANS: B, C, D Feedback Correct Determining who is affected by the dilemma and identifying possible value conflicts among them, identifying all possible solutions, and evaluating the action taken to determine whether it accomplished its purpose clarify the situation and determine whether the selected action achieved its goal. Incorrect A variety of materials including legal documents may help clarify the situation or help identify possible actions. Ethical decision making is not done in isolation. It may involve others but especially must involve the patient and family. All possible solutions should be considered even if they are unusual, complex, or may be difficult to implement. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 102 Chapter 6: Becoming a Nurse: Defining Nursing and Socialization into Professional Practice Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which early nursing theorist recognized therapeutic milieu, assessment skills, and a unique body of knowledge in her definition of nursing? a. Dorothea Orem b. Virginia Henderson c. Hildegard Peplau d. Florence Nightingale ANS: D Feedback A Orem was known for her self-care theory. B Henderson was best known for her definition of nursing as assisting the sick to do those things that they would do for themselves if they were able and for her list of 14 patient problems. C Peplau is known for her theory of therapeutic nurse-patient relationships. D Nightingale was the first nurse to realize the importance of environment and assessment skills and that nursing care should be delivered by a professional nurse with a unique body of knowledge, not a layperson. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 116 2. Which early nursing theorist defined nursing in interpersonal terms by stating that nursing is a significant, therapeutic, and interpersonal process? a. Virginia Henderson b. Hildegard Peplau c. Martha Rogers d. Dorothea Orem ANS: B Feedback A Henderson's definition of nursing did not focus on the interpersonal relationship. B Peplau defined nursing in interpersonal terms. C Rogers is known for including nursing process in her definition of nursing. D Orem is known for her theory on self-care. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 116 3. Which of the following is an example of Orem's self-care theory? a. Assuring proper fresh air and ventilation b. Demonstrating good handwashing techniques c. Assisting a disoriented patient with a bath d. Performing a visual screening exam ANS: C Feedback A Proper ventilation was described by Nightingale. B Good handwashing was described by Nightingale. C Providing adequate patient hygiene is described in Orem's theory of nursing as providing assistance to a person because of the person's inabilities for self-care. D Preventive services are not addressed in Orem's theory. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 116 4. Which of the following is an example of Henderson's definition of nursing? a. Performing a hearing screening in preschool children b. Interacting with depressed men to learn new strategies for reducing their symptoms c. Setting goals for weight loss with a patient d. Teaching a person with frequent constipation about high-fiber foods ANS: D Feedback A Henderson's definition does not speak to preventive services. B Henderson's definition does not focus on interpersonal relationship. C Goal setting is part of King's definition of nursing, not Henderson's. D Henderson's definition states that "the unique function of the nurse is to assist the individual . . . in the performance of those activities contributing to health . . . that he would perform unaided if he had the necessary . . . knowledge." DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: p. 116 5. The legal definition of nursing for any particular state can be found in the a. state legislature's official newsletter. b. state board of nursing's bylaws. c. governor's official papers. d. state's nurse practice act. ANS: D Feedback A The legal definition of nursing is not found in the state legislature's official newsletter. B The state board of nursing administers the nurse practice act of that state, and its bylaws govern its internal functioning. C The governor's office does not determine the legal definition of nursing. D Each state's nurse practice act contains the legal definition of nursing for a particular state. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 117 6. Which of the following is an example of formal socialization into the profession of nursing? a. Unplanned observation of a nurse comforting a child after a painful procedure b. Hearing two nurses discussing how to organize patient care more effectively c. Starting an intravenous (IV) line in the simulation laboratory under faculty guidance d. Participating in a student nurses' association meeting ANS: C Feedback A "Unplanned observation of a nurse comforting a child after a painful procedure" is an example of an incidental learning experience. B "Hearing two nurses discussing how to organize the care of a patient more effectively" is an example of an incidental learning experience. C Formal socialization includes planned activities to gain knowledge and skills needed by the nurse. D "Participating in a student nurses' association meeting" is an example of an incidental learning experience. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 118 7. Which of the following is an example of informal socialization into a profession? a. Nurses discussing a patient care issue in the presence of other nurses b. Taking an extra class for an elective c. Performing your first physical assessment in a client d. Teaching a patient about warfarin (Coumadin) ANS: A Feedback A Informal socialization into the role of a nurse occurs when the student learns from the nurse in an informal, unplanned way. B Taking an extra class for an elective is an example of formal, planned education. C Performing your first physical assessment in a client is part of the formal learning process. D Teaching a patient about Coumadin is part of a planned clinical experience and therefore falls under the category of formal socialization. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 119 8. A nursing student says to the clinical faculty, "I know I will be able to care for this patient given your directions." In which stage of Cohen's model of professional socialization is this student? a. Stage I: Unilateral dependence b. Stage II: Negativity/independence c. Stage III: Dependence/mutuality d. Stage IV: Interdependence ANS: A Feedback A In stage I, students rely on external controls and teachers, absorbing information given by the faculty. B In stage II, students begin to question authority figures versus accepting the patient assignment without questioning. C The student has developed better critical thinking skills at stage III. D In stage IV, the student has learned to make decisions in collaboration with others. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 120 9. A nursing student asks, "Why do I have to go to clinical in obstetrics when I know I'll never work with women and children?" In which stage of Cohen's model of professional socialization is this student? a. Stage I: Unilateral dependence b. Stage II: Negativity/independence c. Stage III: Dependence/mutuality d. Stage IV: Interdependence ANS: B Feedback A Students in stage I rely on external controls and teachers. B In stage II, students begin to question authority figures and overestimate their ability to care for complex patients. C Students develop better critical thinking skills in stage III. D In stage IV, students learn to make decisions in collaboration with each other. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 121 10. A nursing student says, "I can now see how developing care plans helps organize my thoughts and patient care." In which stage of Cohen's model of professional socialization is this student? a. Stage I: Unilateral dependence b. Stage II: Negativity/independence c. Stage III: Dependence/mutuality d. Stage IV: Interdependence ANS: C Feedback A In stage I, students follow directions without questioning or understanding the reasoning behind the activity. B In stage II, the student would question authority figures and overestimate his or her abilities. C Students in stage III have a more reasoned evaluation of others' ideas. D Students in stage IV learn to make decisions in collaboration with others. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 121 11. A nursing student asks, "Since I work as a nurse technician in psychiatric nursing, may I spend part of my clinical rotation with a psychiatric home visiting nurse?" In which stage of Cohen's model of professional socialization is this student? a. Stage I: Unilateral dependence b. Stage II: Negativity/independence c. Stage III: Dependence/mutuality d. Stage IV: Interdependence ANS: D Feedback A Students in stage I are dependent on faculty. B In stage II, students begin to question authority. C In stage III, students begin to develop critical thinking skills. D Students in stage IV often are self-directed and seek out appropriate learning opportunities that better round out their educational experience. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 121 12. Benner describes five stages of nursing proficiency as students develop into expert nurses. Which of the following is not a stage of development described by Benner? a. Novice b. Inexpert beginner c. Competent practitioner d. Expert practitioner ANS: B Feedback A Novice is the first stage in the theory. B The stages identified by Benner in her theory From Novice to Expert do not include inexpert beginner. C Competent practitioner is the third stage in Benner's theory. D Expert practitioner is the fifth stage in Benner's theory. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 121 13. A mother asks the nurse if her 5-year-old can visit his twin brother in the pediatric intensive care unit (PICU) after cardiac surgery. The nurse denies the request because hospital policy states that children younger than 12 years of age are not allowed to visit the PICU. This illustrates which of Benner's stages of nursing proficiency? a. Novice b. Advanced beginner c. Competent practitioner d. Proficient practitioner ANS: A Feedback A At the novice stage, nurses have little background on which to base clinical behavior and therefore depend rather rigidly on established rules. B Nurses at the advanced beginner stage base decisions on both theory and principles but may have difficulty formulating priorities or alternative actions. C Nurses at the competent practitioner stage have feelings of mastery and can examine the needs of everyone in the situation before making decisions. D Nurses at the proficient practitioner stage see patient situations holistically and easily recognize priorities of care. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 121 14. A mother asks the nurse if her 5-year-old can visit his twin brother in the PICU after cardiac surgery. The nurse denies the request because hospital policy states that children younger than 12 years of age are not allowed to visit the PICU but suggests that the mother visit with the child in the visitor's lounge and talk to him about what is happening with his brother. This illustrates which of Benner's stages of nursing proficiency? a. Novice b. Advanced beginner c. Competent practitioner d. Proficient practitioner ANS: B Feedback A Nurses at the novice stage would deny the request on the basis of the established rules. B Nurses at the advanced beginner stage base their decisions on theory and principles but have difficulty viewing many nursing actions as equally important. The nurse would still likely deny the request but, knowing the needs of the mother and child, suggest an alternative means of visiting. C Nurses at the competent practitioner stage have feelings of mastery and can examine the needs of everyone in the situation before making decisions. D Nurses at the proficient practitioner stage see patient situations holistically and easily recognize priorities of care. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 122 15. A mother asks the nurse if her 5-year-old can visit his twin brother in the PICU after cardiac surgery. The nurse knows that hospital policy states that children younger than 12 years of age are not allowed to visit the PICU. After considering the needs of the patient and his brother, the nurse suggests that the brother can visit for 5 minutes. This illustrates which of Benner's stages of nursing proficiency? a. Advanced beginner b. Competent practitioner c. Proficient practitioner d. Expert practitioner ANS: B Feedback A Nurses at the advanced beginner stage base their decisions on theory and principles but may have difficulty viewing many nursing actions as equally important. B Nurses at the competent practitioner stage will examine the needs of everyone in the situation before making a decision. The nurses may or may not allow the visit, but only after examining the needs of everyone and other exigencies involved. C Nurses at the proficient practitioner stage see patient situations holistically and easily recognize priorities of care. D Nurses at the expert practitioner stage have expertise that allows them to select actions based on the patient's complete experience. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 122 16. A mother asks the nurse if her 5-year-old can visit his twin brother in the PICU after cardiac surgery. The nurse knows that hospital policy states that children younger than 12 years of age are not allowed to visit the PICU. The nurse grants the request. This illustrates which of Benner's stages of nursing proficiency? a. Advanced beginner b. Competent practitioner c. Proficient practitioner d. Expert practitioner ANS: C Feedback A Nurses at the advanced beginner stage base their decisions on theory and principles but may have difficulty viewing many nursing actions as equally important. B Nurses at the competent practitioner stage will examine the needs of everyone, as well as other exigencies involved, before making a decision. C Nurses at the proficient practitioner stage see the patient situations holistically and easily recognize the priorities of care. The nurse is more concerned about patient outcomes than institutional rules. D Nurses at the expert practitioner stage have expertise that allows them to select actions based on the patient's complete experience. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 122 17. A 5-year-old with a twin brother is admitted to the PICU after cardiac surgery. Hospital policy does not allow individuals younger than 12 years of age to visit the PICU. The nurse recognizes the needs of the patient and his brother and suggests that the mother bring her son to visit his brother briefly in the afternoon when the unit is usually quiet. This illustrates which of Brenner's stages of nursing proficiency? a. Advanced beginner b. Competent practitioner c. Proficient practitioner d. Expert practitioner ANS: D Feedback A Nurses at the advanced beginner stage base their decisions on theory and principles but may have difficulty viewing many nursing actions as equally important. B Nurses at the competent practitioner stage will examine the needs of everyone, as well as other exigencies involved, before making a decision. C Although nurses at the proficient practitioner stage see patient situations holistically, easily recognize the priorities of care, and allow rules to be bent, they may not suggest bending rules for the desired patient outcome. D Nurses at the expert practitioner stage have expertise that allows them to select actions based on the entire patient's complete situation, including the needs of family members. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 122 18. Which of the following illustrates an effective strategy for a registered nurse student returning for a bachelor's of science in nursing (BSN)? a. Get reacquainted with the library; expect to spend many hours there doing research. b. Be open to information that does not seem to be readily applicable to your current position. c. Start a program only if you have a great deal of free time to devote to classes on campus. d. Use your co-workers as a sounding board to relieve frustration. ANS: B Feedback A Many BSN courses use online learning and are user-friendly for working students; research today is much easier with the Internet. B Nurses returning to school for the BSN degree need to keep an open mind for information that might not seem readily applicable to their work setting. C Many courses are online or Web assisted; nurses cannot wait for conditions to be perfect to return to school. D Staying positive and open to feedback from instructors will pay more dividends than complaining. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 123 19. A nurse observes a new graduate nurse being harassed by co-workers when asking questions or requesting help. What action by the nurse is best? a. Do not intervene, because it will only invite more harassment. b. Ask the nursing manager to intervene on behalf of the new nurse. c. Respectfully confront the staff and explain that this behavior is not part of nursing. d. Teach the new nurse to stand up for himself or herself when harassed. This is bullying behavior by the staff, and often the new nurse cannot handle it alone. If the new nurse cannot manage this with mentoring of the seasoned nurse, the other nurse should help the new nurse report this behavior to the management staff. ANS: C Feedback A By not getting involved, the nurse is silently accepting that this behavior is alright. B The manager may need to become involved, but not as the first step. The responsible, professional nurse would try to intervene first. C Harassment and bullying is antithetical to nursing and should not be tolerated; however, colleagues should be addressed respectfully. D The new nurse may need to learn self-assertive skills; however, the nurse should intervene to stop the behavior. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 126 20. A new graduate nurse is in the fifth week of working on a busy surgical unit. The nurse tells a friend about witnessing some patient care that was "appalling." What should the nurse do? a. Return to school to obtain a master's of science in nursing (MSN) and leave bedside nursing. b. Talk to the other nurses involved in the situation about the concerns. c. Report the behavior to the nurse manager of the unit. d. Accept that this is the reality of nursing in a busy unit. ANS: B Feedback A Returning to school will not help the nurse resolve the reality of this situation. B Talking to the other nurses involved allows this nurse to take responsibility for feelings and get support. C Reporting the behavior without attempting to resolve it with the nurses involved appears to be overreacting and may appear as if the nurse is not a team player. D Disengaging mentally and emotionally may result in dropout. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: p. 128 21. Which of the following strategies may help to overcome reality shock in the novice nurse? a. Participating in a preceptorship b. Returning to school immediately after graduation c. Moving frequently from job to job d. Becoming emotionally involved with patients ANS: A Feedback A Participating in a preceptor program can help a novice assimilate more smoothly into the registered nurse (RN) role. B Prematurely returning to school is often an avoidance mechanism. C Moving frequently from job to job can increase the risk of burnout. D Nurses should not become overly emotionally involved with patients. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 128 22. Black illustrates concepts of preventing burnout by using the example of a flight attendant instructing persons to "put your own oxygen mask on first." What does this statement mean? a. Oxygen is the most important element of life. b. Airway is always a priority in patient care. c. Taking care of yourself will enable you to be a better nurse. d. Ask others for help if you feel overwhelmed by your first position as a nurse. ANS: C Feedback A "Putting your own oxygen mask on first" is about self-care, not oxygen. B "Putting your own oxygen mask on first" is a metaphor for self-care. C Taking care of yourself will allow you to better care for others. D Although finding a mentor is important to self-care, "putting your own oxygen mask on first" does not specifically address this concern. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 128 MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. A definition of nursing is essential because it (Select all that apply.) a. differentiates nursing from other health occupations. b. guides educational preparation and theory development. c. helps state nurse practice acts reflect the changing roles of nurses. d. clarifies the purposes and functions of the nurses. e. informs potential students of exactly what nurses do. ANS: A, B, C, D Feedback Correct A definition is important because it allows nurses, other health care providers, policy makers, and others in the community to better understand what nurses do. Incorrect Although a definition clarifies the role of nursing, no definition can be so explicit that it explains everything a nurse does. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: pp. 114-115 2. Which of the following behaviors of a student indicate that the student has taken responsibility for his or her own professional socialization? (Select all that apply.) a. Projecting a professional appearance in class b. Attending class, quietly listening to the lectures c. Taking responsibility to request alternative dates for examinations in order to work d. Taking responsibility to learn the expectations of the faculty in each course e. Accepting constructive criticism without becoming defensive ANS: A, D, E Feedback Correct Part of being a professional is to look and behave like a professional. Each teacher may have different expectations and it is the student's responsibility to seek clarification as a professional. It is through feedback that one is able to improve as a professional. If students become defensive, they may not hear all the feedback, positive and negative. Incorrect Although class attendance is important, asking questions and initiating discussions create a dynamic learning environment. A professional is not merely an academic spectator. Taking responsibility for organizing one's work to meet deadlines reflects professional behavior. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: pp. 118-119 Chapter 7: The Education of Nurses: On the Leading Edge of Transformation Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. In 1900, the primary reason for hospital-based nursing education programs was to a. educate nurses to care for patients in hospitals. b. provide educational opportunities for women. c. staff the hospitals that operated the education programs. d. provide standardized preparation for nurses. ANS: C Feedback A Most nurses worked in homes and very few worked in hospitals. B The education for women was not a value of society at the time. C In the hospitals there were few paid staff nurses, and most of the care was provided by the nursing students. D The programs of study varied in length, and each school set its standards and requirements. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 131 2. Which of the following nursing leaders is credited with being one of the earliest nursing educators in the world? a. Isabel Hampton Robb b. Mary Adelaide Nutting c. Melinda Anne Richards d. Annie W. Goodrich ANS: B Feedback A Robb studied nursing education. B Mary Adelaide Nutting was a professor at Teachers College in 1907, and she was also the first nursing professor. C Richards was the first trained nurse educated in the United States. D Goodrich became the first dean of the Yale School of Nursing in 1924. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 133 3. The Goldmark Report focused on what aspect of nursing? a. Consistency in length of nursing education programs b. Consistency in theory content across diploma programs c. Desirability of establishing schools of nursing within academic settings d. Increasing numbers of physicians teaching in nursing programs ANS: C Feedback A Consistency in length of programs was not an issue. B Content was not the issue. C The Goldmark Report focused on clinical learning experiences of students, hospital control of schools of nursing, desirability of establishing schools of nursing in universities, lack of funding for nursing education, and lack of qualified faculty. D Nursing curriculum with instruction by physicians was not encouraged. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 134 4. Which American university opened the first nursing school as a separate department within the university? a. Harvard b. Teachers College c. Columbia d. Yale ANS: D Feedback A Harvard was not the first American university to open a nursing school as its own department. B Teachers College was not the first American university to open a nursing school as its own department. C Columbia was not the first American university to open a nursing school as its own department. D In 1924, Yale University was the first American university to open a school of nursing as its own department. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 134 5. Which of the following recommendations resulting from the 1934 study Nursing Schools Today and Tomorrow still has relevance today? a. Nursing students should be trained on the job. b. Nursing students should be used to staff hospitals on the weekends. c. Nurses should be highly educated. d. Nurses with highly developed instincts do not require standards of practice. ANS: C Feedback A Nurses should be highly educated in a university setting. B Students should not be used to staff hospitals. C The study made five recommendations: nursing education should be established within higher education; nurses should be highly educated; students should not be used to staff hospitals; standards of practice should be established; and students should meet minimal qualifications for graduation. D Standards of practice should be established. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 134 6. The earliest type of formal nursing education program was the a. diploma program. b. associate degree program. c. bachelor's degree program. d. grandfathered acceptance as registered nurse (RN). ANS: A Feedback A Diploma programs of nursing began in the late 1800s and were the earliest form of nursing education. B Associate nursing degree programs began in 1952. C Bachelor's degree programs began in 1909 but became commonplace only in the mid-1900s. D Nurses are not grandfathered into licensure. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 134 7. The single most important reason for the decline in the number of hospital-based diploma programs was a. shift in hospital occupancy from acute care to home care. b. increase in hospital-based medical residency programs competing for educational dollars. c. beginning of associate degree programs that were shorter in length. d. diploma education's position outside the mainstream of higher education. ANS: D Feedback A The increase in complexity of health care led to the need for more advanced educational preparation for nurses. B Although it became more difficult for hospitals to fund diploma programs, this was not the most important reason for their decline. C The advent of associate degree programs led to the decline in diploma programs, because associate degree programs are located in academic settings. D The movement of nursing education into the educational mainstream, that is, colleges and universities, was responsible for the rapid decrease in diploma programs. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 135 8. Which of the following is a primary reason for the initial slow growth of bachelor's degree nursing programs in the United States? a. Belief that hands-on training received in hospital-based diploma programs was superior to the theoretical-focused content in bachelor's degree programs b. Belief that hospital-based diploma programs were more scientifically based c. Belief that students prepared in hospital-based diploma programs were more compassionate caregivers d. Belief that hospital-based education programs facilitated career mobility ANS: A Feedback A There was a great deal of acceptance of the hands-on teaching received in diploma programs. B Bachelor's degree programs are more theoretically focused. C There is no difference in perception of caring between the programs. D Bachelor's degree education facilitates career mobility. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 135 9. The 1948 Brown Report recommended which of the following? a. Limit enrollment of men and minorities in nursing programs. b. Students admitted to nursing programs should not be required to meet admission requirements of the university. c. Schools of nursing should be associated with teaching hospitals. d. Schools of nursing should be located in institutions of higher learning. ANS: D Feedback A The Brown Report recommended that more men and minorities be recruited into nursing. B The Brown Report recommendations did not address admission requirements of universities. C The Brown Report recommended moving nursing education into academic settings. D The Brown Report recommended that schools of nursing be moved to institutions of higher learning. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 135 10. Which of the following is true about bachelor's of science in nursing (BSN) education? a. Faculty must be BSN prepared. b. It is recommended by professional organizations as preparation for entry into practice. c. It requires 3 years to complete. d. Faculty are not given full faculty status in the university. ANS: B Feedback A Faculty in BSN programs have master's or doctorate degrees. B Many nursing organizations have advocated for the BSN as the beginning educational preparation for the profession of nursing. C The BSN degree requires 4 years to complete. D Faculty in nursing now have full faculty status. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 136 11. Which recommendation made by the 1965 American Nurses Association (ANA) position paper and other position papers of national nursing organizations is still an issue today? a. Education for nursing should take place in hospital-based programs. b. Minimum preparation for professional nursing practice should be the BSN degree. c. Minimum preparation for technical nursing practice should be the licensed practical/vocation nurse (LPN/LVN) diploma. d. Education for nursing must be evidence-based. ANS: B Feedback A The ANA position paper advocated for education in colleges and universities. B The issue of minimum educational requirement for entry into practice is not likely to change until there are safeguards in place that ensure that all nurses currently in practice continue to feel that they are valued members of the profession. This provision continues to be controversial today. C The technical level of nursing was supported in community and junior colleges. D There is little evidence to support traditional educational methods used in nursing education. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 136 12. Which type of basic nursing education program graduates the largest number of RNs in the United States today? a. Diploma programs b. Associate degree programs c. BSN programs d. Nurse practitioner programs ANS: B Feedback A Diploma programs are on the decline in enrollment and number of programs operating. B Associate degree programs graduate the most nurses today. C BSN program enrollments have increased but are still lower than associate degree program enrollments. D Nurse practitioner programs are advanced practice master's-level programs. The question refers to basic RN preparation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 137 13. Who is credited with developing the model of associate degree nursing education? a. Esther Lucille Brown b. Annie W. Goodrich c. Mildred Montag d. National League for Nursing ANS: C Feedback A Esther Lucille Brown wrote the Brown Report. B Annie W. Goodrich was the first dean of nursing. C Mildred Montag developed a model of associate degree nursing. D The National League for Nursing did not develop the model of associate degree nursing. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 139 14. What is the purpose of articulated models or systems for nursing education? a. Increasing curriculum similarities in nursing programs b. Allowing nurses to work in nursing as they gain additional education c. Increasing the numbers of nursing education programs d. Facilitating opportunities for nurses to move up the educational ladder with ease ANS: D Feedback A Articulation has not made the programs more similar. B Although articulation models allow a person to move with greater ease from one level to another with less repetition of coursework, articulation systems do not address the ability to work and attend school simultaneously any more than any other nursing education program. C Articulation model educational programs have been slow to develop because of the work required to keep all the courses congruent with each other, and increased educational programs have not resulted. D Articulated models allow a nursing student/nurse to enter and leave at different points. Articulated systems provide flexibility for the nurse to gain more education. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 140 15. Which of the following is an important advantage of distance learning? a. It allows access to adult learners who are geographically unable to participate in a traditional classroom setting. b. It allows students to set their own learning objectives. c. It allows a student to take courses without clinical components. d. It allows universities to offer more classes with fewer faculty. ANS: A Feedback A Distance education allows flexibility, particularly for working people in locations where there is no campus, and enables them to return to school. B The requirements are just as stringent as traditional courses, but the method of participation is flexible. C Distance learning does not negate the need for clinical components of courses. D Faculty requirements are the same. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 142 16. All levels of nursing educational programs can be accredited by which organization? a. American Association of Colleges of Nursing (AACN) b. Commission on Collegiate Nursing Education (CCNE) c. National League for Nursing Accrediting Commission (NLNAC) d. National League for Nursing Councils of Education Programs (NLNCEP) ANS: C Feedback A The AACN does not accredit educational programs. B Although the CCNE accredits educational programs, it only accredits bachelor's and higher degree programs. C The NLNAC accredits LPN/LVN, associate degree, BSN, and MSN programs. D The NLNCEP develops accreditation programs and criteria for different levels of education but does not carry out the accreditation process. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 143 17. Which of the following is a part of the history of doctoral education in nursing? a. The nurse scientist program was discontinued after more universities began offering doctoral programs in nursing. b. The first doctoral degree (PhD) was offered at the University of Pittsburgh. c. The number of doctoral programs in nursing has doubled since 1990. d. The largest numbers of doctoral programs are practice-focused. ANS: A Feedback A In the 1970s, there was a major increase in doctoral programs in nursing. This provided an education in nursing that developed research skills and provided nursing faculty. Therefore, the nurse scientist program was discontinued in 1975. B The first doctoral degree in nursing (PhD) was offered at New York University in 1934. Teachers College at Columbia had offered a degree in nursing education (EdD). C In 1990, there were 48 doctoral programs in nursing, and by 2007 there were 166, actually more than tripling the number. D Sixty-eight percent of the doctoral programs are research-focused, while 32% are practice-focused. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 145 18. In 2004, the AACN proposed a new doctoral degree, the doctor of nursing practice (DNP). What is the focus of the DNP degree in nursing? a. Nursing research b. Nursing quality improvement c. Advanced clinical practice d. Nursing theory development ANS: C Feedback A The research degree is the PhD. B There is not a nursing doctoral degree designed specifically to address quality improvement. C The DNP degree is designed to be a clinical practice degree. It would replace the master's degree for nurse practitioners and nurse-midwives, placing them on equal footing with other disciplines. D The PhD degree is most appropriate for theory development and advancement. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 145 19. Which of the following is the primary distinction between licensure and certification? a. Certification is required to practice nursing. b. Licensure is granted automatically on completion of an accredited nursing program. c. Certification validates a high level of proficiency. d. Licensure is voluntary. ANS: C Feedback A Licensure, not certification, is required to practice nursing. B Licensure is not automatically granted on completion of a nursing program. C Certification validates a high level of proficiency and knowledge. D The NCLEX examination must be completed successfully. Certification is voluntary, but licensure is not. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 145 20. The purpose of mandatory continuing education for license renewal is to a. ensure that nurses remain up to date in knowledge. b. ensure that nurses remain competent in psychomotor skills. c. ensure that nurses attend regular staff development meetings. d. ensure consistency between states regarding continuing education requirements. ANS: A Feedback A Mandatory continuing education is a state government's way of ensuring that nurses remain up to date. B Ensuring that nurses remain competent in psychomotor skills is not a test of psychomotor competency. C Staff development deals with competency and institutional updates. D The number of continuing education hours required varies among states. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 147 MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Florence Nightingale established a school of nursing based on which of the following innovative principles? (Select all that apply.) a. The nursing school should be affiliated with a teaching hospital but independent of it. b. Professional nurses should be paid for their instruction in the school. c. Students should be selected to create a diverse student body. d. The curriculum should include theory and practical experience. e. Nurses should be trained in privately funded educational institutions. ANS: A, B, D Feedback Correct Nightingale saw the benefit to affiliation with a teaching hospital but thought that the teaching mission should be separate from the service mission. Nightingale saw instruction as a valued activity worthy of reimbursement and involving more than allowing one to learn by watching. Nightingale thought that nursing was more than just on-the-job training and required knowledge upon which to base nursing activities. Incorrect Nightingale saw nursing as a profession for women only and that the women should be selected based on certain criteria. Nightingale thought that nursing education should be publicly funded. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 133 2. Why is accreditation of nursing education programs is important? (Select all that apply.) a. It assures students that their educational program is offering quality education. b. Acceptance into graduate programs in nursing depends on graduation from an accredited program. c. It serves as stimulus for programs to initiate periodic self-examination and self-improvement. d. It has established standards to allow graduates to take licensure examinations. e. Graduating from an accredited program ensures successful completion of the licensure exam. ANS: A, B, C Feedback Correct For an educational program to be accredited, it must meet criteria that protect the quality of education. Graduate programs use the program's accreditation status to assure the quality of education the potential student has received in preparation for graduate study. As part of the accreditation process, the educational program must complete a self-study and show how the school meets each standard. Incorrect The standards that educational programs need to meet to allow their graduates to take the licensure examination are determined by each state, not by accrediting bodies. Graduation from any program of nursing does not guarantee passage of the licensure exam. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 142 3. Which factors contribute to threatening the current and future supply of nurses? (Select all that apply.) a. The number of qualified applicants has decreased. b. Seventy-five percent of current faculty may retire over the next decade. c. Overall numbers of applicants to doctoral programs has decreased. d. Faculty vacancies are having an impact on large numbers of schools. e. More men are entering nursing and choosing faculty positions. ANS: B, D Feedback Correct It is projected that as many as 75% of current faculty will retire by 2019. This will impact large numbers of schools and can limit enrollment. Incorrect The number of qualified applicants has increased, but more than 30,000 applicants were turned away from bachelor's degree programs for "lack of capacity." More men are entering nursing, which should help increase recruitment of other men into the field. More male faculty could also help recruitment of men into nursing. There is continued demand for doctoral education in nursing. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 147 4. Over the last two decades a number of organizations issued reports identifying changes needed in nursing education to prepare nurses for practice in the twenty-first century. Which of the following suggestions were included in these reports? (Select all that apply.) a. Recruitment of students and faculty to reflect the multicultural nature of society b. More focus on knowledge and skills to care for acutely ill individuals c. Increased informatics training to improve access to information d. Limiting discussion of the quality improvement measures in the health care system e. Curricula emphasizing interdisciplinary teamwork and collaboration ANS: A, C, E Feedback Correct The changes "recruitment of students and faculty to reflect the multicultural nature of society," "increased informatics training to improve access to information" and "curricula emphasizing interdisciplinary teamwork and collaboration" were made in several nursing reports and in the 2003 Institute of Medicine report. Incorrect The reports stated that there should be increased focus on chronic illness and that a quality improvement process of the health care system must be included in the education of health care providers. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 149 Chapter 8: Critical Thinking, the Nursing Process, and Clinical Judgment Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Critical thinking in nursing needs to include which of the following important variables? a. Consideration of ethics and responsible decision making b. Ability to act quickly, often on impulse c. Ability to determine the best nursing interventions regardless of patient's values and beliefs d. Flexible thinking that rarely follows a pattern or considers standards ANS: A Feedback A Critical thinking in nursing is based on ethics and standards of the profession. B Critical thinking is consciously developed, complex, and purposeful, never impulsive. C Critical thinking and decision making are based on patient's values and beliefs. D Critical thinking is based on a decision-making model and nursing standards. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 154 2. A nursing student asks a faculty member how to improve critical thinking. Which response by the faculty is best? a. "Don't worry too much; it will come with time and experience." b. "Pay close attention to how you solve problems; assess your own style of thinking." c. "Spend time shadowing an experienced nurse to see how it is done." d. "Use ethical standards to guide how you approach patient situations." ANS: B Feedback A Although time and experience are important in developing critical thinking, people actually must actively consider how they think in order to improve critical thinking. B Making thinking a focus of concern and actively thinking about it is the best advise the faculty can give. C While observing an experienced nurse may be helpful, the student needs to be an active participant to improve critical thinking. D Using ethical and professional standards is a part of critical thinking, but that is only a portion of what makes a good critical thinker. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: p. 154 3. Which of the following is a characteristic of an accomplished critical thinker? a. Inquisitiveness b. Narrow focus c. Unaffected by other arguments d. Quick decision making ANS: A Feedback A The accomplished critical thinker needs to ask questions when things do not seem quite right. B The accomplished critical thinker thinks broadly, considering all possibilities. C The accomplished critical thinker considers all information and all arguments before deciding on a course of action. D The accomplished critical thinker considers the facts, fits them into known patterns, considers all aspects of the problem, and makes decisions based on knowledge, not on instinct. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 153 4. Which of the following statements describes the purpose of the nursing process? a. Process of documentation designed to decrease liability b. Process designed to maximize reimbursement potential c. A sophisticated time-management strategy d. Process used to identify and solve patient problems ANS: D Feedback A Although proper documentation is part of the nursing process, it is a problem-solving process, not a documentation process. B The nursing process is not used with reimbursement potential in mind. C The nursing process is not a time-management strategy. D The purpose of the nursing process is to identify and solve patient problems. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 156 5. Which of the following is considered subjective data in information gathering from the patient? a. Pulse and blood pressure measurements b. ECG pattern c. Diaphoresis d. Pain ANS: D Feedback A Pulse rate and blood pressure measurements are signs or objective data that can be confirmed by observation. B The ECG pattern is objective data. C Diaphoresis is objective data. D Subjective data are the patient's perceptions, sometimes called "symptoms." DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 157 6. A nursing student is complaining about writing care plans. Which response by the faculty is best to help the student see the importance of this activity? a. "Using the nursing process will help nurses get reimbursement for their services." b. "You need a written plan of care so everyone is on the same page as you are." c. "The nursing process is a way to systematically think about and use patient data." d. "Most state nurse practice acts require them, so you need to learn how to do them." ANS: C Feedback A Demonstrating use of the nursing process may be important in obtaining reimbursement, but it is not the primary reason for using the nursing process (and writing care plans). B Having a detailed plan that other nurses can follow is important, but it is not the primary reason for using the nursing process (and writing care plans). C Writing care plans teaches students to use the nursing process, which is a systematic way of thinking about and processing patient data. D State nurse practice acts do require that nurses demonstrate the use of the nursing process, but this statement does not describe why the process itself is important. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 156 7. Which of the following is considered objective data obtained from the patient? a. "I can't catch my breath." b. Patient expresses concern about missing work. c. Patient nods, indicating an affirmative answer to a question. d. Blood pressure is 110/70 at 8 PM. ANS: D Feedback A A patient's expression of a problem is subjective data. B The patient expressing concern about missing work is an inference based on what a patient has said. C "Patient nods, indicating an affirmative answer to a question" is interpretation of a movement. D Objective data are measurable and observable. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 157 8. The nurse observes a patient lying rigidly in bed and taking shallow breaths. The patient reports a pain score of 4 out of 5 and says, "My leg hurts." The nurse determines that the objective and subjective data are a. incongruent and require more assessment. b. insufficient to make any conclusions. c. congruent and support that the p