2024 latest (100% ACCURATE SUMMER) GRADED
A+|COMPREHENSIVE Q&A with Rationales
1. Which class of antihypertensive drugs works by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to
angiotensin II?
A) Beta-blockers
B) ACE inhibitors
C) Calcium channel blockers
D) Diuretics
Answer: B) ACE inhibitors
Explanation: ACE inhibitors block the angiotensin-converting enzyme, reducing angiotensin II
levels, leading to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure.
2. A patient on warfarin therapy presents with an INR of 5.2 but no signs of bleeding. What is
the best initial nursing action?
A) Administer vitamin K immediately
B) Hold warfarin dose and monitor INR closely
C) Increase warfarin dose
D) Discharge patient with no changes
Answer: B) Hold warfarin dose and monitor INR closely
Explanation: An INR of 5.2 is elevated and increases bleeding risk. Holding warfarin and
monitoring is appropriate unless bleeding occurs. Vitamin K is reserved for serious bleeding.
3. Which of the following medications is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its teratogenic
effects?
A) Labetalol
B) Methotrexate
C) Furosemide
D) Acetaminophen
Answer: B) Methotrexate
Explanation: Methotrexate is a known teratogen and contraindicated during pregnancy.
4. What is the primary mechanism of action of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?
,A) Increase dopamine levels
B) Block serotonin receptors
C) Inhibit serotonin reuptake in the synaptic cleft
D) Enhance norepinephrine release
Answer: C) Inhibit serotonin reuptake in the synaptic cleft
Explanation: SSRIs increase serotonin availability by preventing its reabsorption into the
presynaptic neuron.
5. A patient receiving digoxin therapy should be monitored for which of the following signs of
toxicity?
A) Bradycardia and visual disturbances
B) Hypertension and headache
C) Tachycardia and sweating
D) Hyperkalemia and muscle cramps
Answer: A) Bradycardia and visual disturbances
Explanation: Digoxin toxicity often manifests as bradycardia, nausea, and visual changes such as
yellow-green halos.
6. Which antibiotic class is associated with tendon rupture as a serious adverse effect?
A) Macrolides
B) Fluoroquinolones
C) Penicillins
D) Tetracyclines
Answer: B) Fluoroquinolones
Explanation: Fluoroquinolones have been linked to tendonitis and tendon rupture, especially in
older adults.
7. What is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose?
A) Naloxone
B) Atropine
C) N-acetylcysteine
D) Activated charcoal
Answer: C) N-acetylcysteine
Explanation: N-acetylcysteine replenishes glutathione and prevents liver damage in
acetaminophen toxicity.
8. Which diuretic is potassium-sparing?
, A) Furosemide
B) Hydrochlorothiazide
C) Spironolactone
D) Mannitol
Answer: C) Spironolactone
Explanation: Spironolactone antagonizes aldosterone, promoting sodium excretion while
retaining potassium.
9. A nurse is administering morphine to a patient. Which adverse effect requires immediate
intervention?
A) Constipation
B) Respiratory depression
C) Nausea
D) Sedation
Answer: B) Respiratory depression
Explanation: Respiratory depression is a life-threatening opioid adverse effect requiring urgent
action.
10. Which medication is commonly used as first-line treatment for type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A) Insulin
B) Metformin
C) Glipizide
D) Pioglitazone
Answer: B) Metformin
Explanation: Metformin decreases hepatic glucose production and improves insulin sensitivity.
11. What is the primary adverse effect of lithium therapy?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypothyroidism
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Bradycardia
Answer: B) Hypothyroidism
Explanation: Long-term lithium use can impair thyroid function, leading to hypothyroidism.
12. Which medication class is preferred for rapid reversal of benzodiazepine overdose?