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APEA Q Bank Practice Test Set #2 | Questions & Answers (Graded A+) , Complete Latest Version

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APEA Q Bank Practice Test Set #2 | Questions & Answers (Graded A+) , Complete Latest Version

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APEA Q
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APEA Q

Voorbeeld van de inhoud

@PROFDOCDIGITALLIBRARIES



APEA Q Bank Practice Test Set #2 |
Questions & Answers (Graded A+)
What is the treatment of choice for community acquired, uncomplicated pneumonia? -
ANSWER - amoxicillin

Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia is a type of ____________ anemia. - ANSWER -
pernicious; macrocytic

Prostate infection or inflammation can cause a sharp rise in PSA values. When should
this value go back down to normal levels and be checked after an acute infection? -
ANSWER - 4 weeks
PR
The most common cause of atypical pneumonia in adults - ANSWER - mycoplasma
pneumoniae

An herbal supplement thought to help BPH - ANSWER - saw palmetto

A male patient presents to your clinic with a lump in his breast. How should we work this
O
up? - ANSWER - clinical breast exam, mammogram, AND ultrasound

If a patient with strep comes back after 48 hours with no improvement on antibiotics,
FD
what should you then prescribe? - ANSWER - a penicillin or cephalosporin with beta
lactamase coverage

How long must a tick be attached to the skin in order for Lyme disease to be
transferred? - ANSWER - 48 hours
O
When should kids be treated for hypertension? - ANSWER - if they also have diabetes,
are symptomatic, have hypertension > 95th percentile, or when end organ damage is
present
C

ACEIs can cause what electrolyte abnormality? - ANSWER - hyperkalemia

A positive "drop arm" test is a sign of what? - ANSWER - torn rotator cuff

The medical term for spoon shaped nails - ANSWER - koilonychia

Koilonychia is a sign of what? - ANSWER - iron deficiency anemia

How is influenza diagnosed? - ANSWER - a nasal swab

What finding would be most likely to differentiate gout from septic arthritis? - ANSWER -
fever would be indicative of septic arthritis

,@PROFDOCDIGITALLIBRARIES



Diphenhydramine has __________ properties and is contraindicated in which patient
populations? - ANSWER - anticholinergic; elderly and those with glaucoma

The medical term for flat feet - ANSWER - pes planus

How does plantar fasciitis usually present? - ANSWER - as pain in the morning with
resolution after several steps, but as it worsens the patient will start to complain of heel
pain throughout the day and with walking

Scope of practice for NPs is not influenced by which entity? - ANSWER - a court of law

Used to establish a designated level of professional competence - ANSWER - licensure

Treatment of subclinical hypothyroidism is generally not indicated unless the TSH is
PR
___________. - ANSWER - greater than 10

In the presence of an elevated serum TSH, what is the next step in management? -
ANSWER - repeat TSH plus free T4

Patients with a history of UC or Crohn's should have a colonoscopy how often? -
O
ANSWER - every 1-5 years due to the increased risk of colorectal cancer

What is the first line treatment for community acquired atypical pneumonia? - ANSWER
FD
- macrolides such azithromycin. If the pt cannot take a macrolide, then they can do
levofloxacin or doxycycline

What is metatarsus adductus? - ANSWER - the medical term for in-toeing
O
What is true regarding older adults who are overweight? - ANSWER - mortality in older
adults related to overweight states declines over time

How do we manage rubella immunity in pregnant women? - ANSWER - we screen all
C
pregnant women with a rubella titer. If they had a protective rubella titer in a previous
pregnancy, then they do not need to be checked again. If they are found to not be
immune when pregnant, then she should be vaccinated AFTER delivery

How is permethrin applied to the skin for scabies? - ANSWER - a one time application
to all skin below the neck and then left on for 8-12 hours is sufficient

After exposure to HIV, when will the patient seroconvert and become positive? -
ANSWER - 3 months

Is age less than 18 years a risk factor for an ectopic pregnancy? - ANSWER - no; but
personal history of PID, an IUD, previous ectopic pregnancy, previous tubal surgery,
pathology, or ligation all are risk factors

, @PROFDOCDIGITALLIBRARIES



What is Tanner stage 5 of breast development in females? - ANSWER - projection of
the nipple only

What are two common classes of drugs that interact with grapefruit juice? - ANSWER -
statins and CCBs

Ankle inversion is a common complaint from a patient with what? - ANSWER - a lateral
ankle sprain

How can we best diagnose coarctation of the aorta? - ANSWER - by comparing the
upper and lower extremity blood pressures

What is the most important risk factor for developing breast cancer in women of average
risk? - ANSWER - age
PR
hey - ANSWER - stopped at top of page 7

What is the recommended treatment for blepharitis? - ANSWER - erythromycin 1cm
ribbon 5x daily for 7 days
O
What is the recommended treatment for severe anorexia with delusions? - ANSWER -
2nd atypical antipsychotics
FD
What lab values need to be monitored in a patient on Tizanidine? - ANSWER - LFTs
and BP at baseline and 1 month after the max dose is achieved (can cause
hepatotoxicity and hypotension)

What class of drug is dabigatran (pradaxa)? - ANSWER - direct thrombin inhibitor
O
The most effective treatments for acne related to increased sebum production are
what? - ANSWER - oral contraceptives and isotretinoin
C
Oral contraceptive regimen in which both the estrogen and progesterone concentrations
vary throughout the cycle - ANSWER - quadriphasic

Oral contraceptive regimen in which the estrogen and progestin doses are fixed
throughout the cycle - ANSWER - monophasic

Oral contraceptive regimen in which in the estrogen dose remains the same for the first
21 days of the cycle, while progestin is lower in the first half and higher in the second
half - ANSWER - biphasic

Oral contraceptive regimen in which the estrogen remains consistent and the progestin
dose varies - ANSWER - triphasic

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