EMS EMT 430 Exam | Verified with 100% Correct Answers

EMS EMT 430 Exam | Verified with 100% Correct Answers A patient shall be defined as: A person who presents with a subjective and/or objective signs and/or symptoms or a complaint which results in evaluation and/or treatment Someone who arrives at the fire station requesting a blood pressure check and also verbalizes and medical complaint will be considered a _____ and a full ____ must be completed. Patient full patient care report A patient encounter does not require _____ treatment, transport, or cooperation from the patient If a technician perceives a _____ that requires evaluation a _____has been made and a _____ report must be completed. medical problem; patient encounter; full patient care report Medical decision making capacity: is the ability of a patient to understand the benefits and risks of and alternatives to a proposed treatment or intervention (including no treatment) Patient competency: is a global assessment and legal determination made by a judge in court A patient with medical decision making capacity is considered to give informed consent when any of the following occur. (3) patient gives verbal permission to treat patient gives written permission to treat patient does not object as you begin assessment To give informed consent a patient must be legally allowed to act as an adult this means the patient must be_____ or _____. at least 18 years of age less than 18 and married or legally released from custody of parent or guardian What are the two exceptions for being under the age of 18 and unmarried and being able to give informed consent? an unmarried pregnant minor may consent to or refuse treatment for medical problems related to her pregnancy only an unmarried minor mother make consent to or refused treatment for her child Patient/parents are not considered to have medical decision capacity if any of the following are present: (3) significant mental impairment resides in a memory care facility at risk for self-harm, suicide, or homicide. If medical personnel are concerned for the safety of a minor and the parent or legal guardian refuses treatment and transport contact _____ (2) rescue district / battalion Chief and law enforcement for guidance Durable power of attorney form authorizes a designated individual to handle affairs and conduct business on a patient's behalf this form is completed _____ of a patient becoming incapacitated. in advance Durable power of attorney is often a lengthy detailed document that includes financial considerations, the _____ form is more commonly utilized in these situation. Should a patient be alert and oriented they _____ health care surrogate form maintain the right to override the form A healthcare surrogate form authorizes a designated individual to make health care decisions on a patient's behalf this form is completed _____ in advance of a patient becoming incapacitated If the patient is incapacitated and did not previously complete an advanced directive. The following individuals in order of priority may be designated as a proxy and may make health care decisions based on the patient's behalf: (8) The judicially appointed guardian of the patient The patient's spouse an adult child of the patient (in the case of more than one go with the majority) an adult sibling of the patient and adult relative of the patient who has exhibited special care and concern for the patient a close friend of the patient a clinical social worker licensed pursuant to chapter 491 An approved healthcare agent may verbally revoke a _____ if their _____ is appropriately listed on the ___ do not resuscitate order DNR signature yellow DNR form A healthcare agent may not withhold consent for CPR in the _____ absence of a DNR If JFRD members feel that a Baker act is warranted _____ must be contacted. law enforcement A baker act will not be used as a pretext to _____ to an individual who has refused treatment. provide medical treatment / transportation JFRD members are ____ legally authorized to execute a baker act. NOT JFRD is responsible for the _____ at the scene of an emergency. law enforcement is responsible for _____ welfare of the patient and all medical treatment traffic control and general scene management For a patient in police custody if the patient is unstable transport to the ______ closest most appropriate hospital For a patient in police custody if the patient is stable_____ will dictate the hospital destination. law enforcement will dictate the hospital destination The approved methods of restraint for JFRD personnel are: (4) appropriate sedatives soft limb restraints stretch or straps / harness wide cloth restraints No patient will be restrained in the ______ position. prone or "hogtied" When restraints are in use circulation to the extremities shall be evaluated at least _____ every 5 minutes JFRD personnel shall never leave a restrained patient. Unattended Patient care reports should be completed as soon as possible and are always required to be completed ______ by the end of the shift What is the only approved JFRD format for your PCR narrative? (5) Chief complaint history of present illness physical exam treatments note If the patient has the mental capacity to refuse transport emphasize: (4) The need for treatment/transport The risks of refusal of care (including death and disability) The willingness of EMS to transport the patient The patient or legal guardian should call 911 again if there are any changes in their condition Must be read to patient if executing a refusal: you have a health condition that needs to be evaluated by a physician and you need to be transported to the hospital. if you are not transported to the hospital, you may die or be severely disabled Appropriate witnesses (in order of preference) (5) spouses, relatives, law enforcement, friends, other fire/rescue personnel (fellow rescue/fire personnel are an absolute last resort) Administration of the continuous quality improvement program will be the responsibility of: (4) medical director division chief of rescue deputy division Chief of rescue quality improvement officer The quality improvement program will be a dynamic process, changing with the identified needs of the department and consist of the following three aspects: proactive, concurrent, retrospective Rescue captains must review the following reports monthly: 20 PCRs per month to include a sampling from all report authors assigned to that unit during the month with emphasis on refusals and calls of a critical nature Rescue district / battalion Chiefs must review all following reports monthly if not already reviewed by a captain: call cardiacs / trauma arrests all "alert" calls all advanced airways minimum 30 PCR per month from authors assigned to their district The QI office receives automated daily queries of emergency pro PCRs that have a responsibility signature timestamp noted: after the transfer unit has gone available from the medical facility A vulnerable adult is defined as: one who due to their age or disability, may be unable to adequately provide for their own care or protection. Reporting abuse/neglect: anyone making a report who is acting in ___ is immune from any liability per FL statute. acting in good faith Reporting abuse: notify the division chief of rescue via email within 24 hours indicating that you have reported the case to the FL abuse/neglect registry, including only: (2) The (only) first name and ID number of the contact person Unquestionable death criteria: (6) unresponsive, apnec pulseless, AND at least one of the following: The patient has clear signs of body decay The patient has rigor mortis The patient has an open cranium with exposed brain matter The patient is decapitated or has a severed trunk The patient has full thickness burns to the entire body Trauma death criteria: (3) blunt force trauma or multi-system trauma patients unresponsive, apneic, pulseless submersion victims over 60 minutes Death scene procedure: Except for _____ , a JFRD unit shall remain on scene until law enforcement arrives. health care facilities A DNRO only means that in the event of cardiac or pulmonary arrest, that ____ CPR will not be initiated Patients will not be given medications in the field and then: be released or allowed transport by private vehicle Transports of unstable patients should begin within: 10 minutes when possible The district / battalion Chief may waive the maximum of ____ per rescue company and extenuating circumstances. maximum of two patients An ATU for direct flight to UF Gainesville burn center should also be considered for: (3) second and third degree burns greater than 20% of TBSA 3rd degree burns greater than 5% of TBSA second and third degree burns with the threat of functional or cosmetic impairment to the face, hands, feet, genitalia, pernium, or major joint Patient's in ___ (2) are not appropriate for an ATU. cardiac or traumatic arrest Service animals are defined as: dogs that are individually trained to do work or perform tasks for people with disabilities For service animals ____ and ____ maybe considered threatening behavior. growling or barking JFRD personnel may only ask two questions in regards to service animals: is the dog a service animal because of a disability? what work or task has the dog been trained to perform? ____ and ___ of dogs are not valid reasons for denying access or refusing service to people using service animals. allergies and fear of dogs For patients with service dogs personnel cannot ask about the person's: disability, required medical documentation, require a special identification card or training documentation for the dog, or ask that the dog demonstrates its ability to perform the worker task As authorized by Florida statute, chapter 401.254, JFRD may provide treatment and transport of injured: police canines Injured police canines will be taken to one of two 24-hour emergency veterinary Care clinics: Blue Pearl pet hospital Orange Park location Blue pearl pet hospital Southside location Criteria for being considered a trauma alert patient: The patient has second or third degree burns too: 15% or more of total body surface area Assessing pediatric trauma patients. Trauma patients with the anatomical and physical characteristics of a person: 15 years of age or less Assessing pediatric trauma patients: Second or third degree burns too _____ or more of total body surface area. 10% The ____ of the EMS provider issuing the trauma alert or the ____ at the receiving trauma center or hospital, are the only people authorized to change the trauma alert status. The medical director, or the physician at the receiving trauma center State approved trauma centers: (3) UF health hospital Jacksonville Memorial hospital Orange Park medical center Trauma alert long bone fracture criteria: two or more long bone fracture sites State approved pediatric trauma centers (2) UF health hospital Jacksonville Wolfson's children hospital Adult GCS scale: Pediatric Glasgow coma score: Pretty much in 90% of the treatment protocols for EMS EMT 430 you're going to: (3) maintain body warmth (increase temperature and patient compartment) administer 02 via proper adjunct to maintain adequate oxygen saturation of 95% or greater determine blood glucose level To provide spinal immobilization for infants and children less ___ lbs use ___ 60 lb pedi immobilizer Protective helmets should be removed. If the helmet is removed, the shoulder pads also need to be removed. It is an "all or nothing principle" Sporting helmet removal indications: Helmets and shoulder pads should be left in place except in the following situations: (6) helmet in place and no shoulder pads head / facial trauma face mask cannot be removed cervical spine regions are unstable because the helmet fits poorly airway Management cannot be achieved with just face mask removal patient is in cardiac arrest Patients with chest trauma should be transported to a trauma center when: (2) discoloration, severe tenderness, crepitus, respiratory distress, or decreased breath sounds are present. elderly patients on anticoagulants should also be transported to a trauma center