NU 508 Quiz 3 Questions With Complete
Solutions.
Course
NUR 508
✅ 1. A patient is prescribed warfarin. What lab value must be monitored
regularly to assess therapeutic effect?
A. INR
B. BUN
C. Hemoglobin
D. Platelet count
✅ Answer: A
💡 Rationale: The International Normalized Ratio (INR) monitors the therapeutic level of
warfarin. Target INR for most indications is 2.0–3.0.
✅ 2. A nurse practitioner is starting lisinopril for a patient with hypertension.
What is the most serious potential adverse effect?
A. Bradycardia
B. Dry cough
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypoglycemia
✅ Answer: C
💡 Rationale: Lisinopril (an ACE inhibitor) can cause retention of potassium, potentially
leading to hyperkalemia. Although cough is common, hyperkalemia can be life-threatening.
✅ 3. A patient receiving gentamicin IV should be monitored for which major
toxicity?
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Ototoxicity
C. Hypertension
D. Diarrhea
✅ Answer: B
💡 Rationale: Aminoglycosides like gentamicin are known for causing ototoxicity and
nephrotoxicity. Baseline and ongoing hearing assessment is essential.
,✅ 4. Which of the following is true regarding the pharmacokinetics of elderly
patients?
A. Increased renal clearance
B. Increased hepatic metabolism
C. Decreased gastric pH
D. Decreased renal excretion
✅ Answer: D
💡 Rationale: Aging reduces renal function, impacting the clearance of many drugs. This
requires dosage adjustments.
✅ 5. A patient is prescribed metformin for type 2 diabetes. Which condition is
an absolute contraindication?
A. Hypertension
B. Elevated liver enzymes
C. Renal impairment
D. Hypercholesterolemia
✅ Answer: C
💡 Rationale: Metformin can cause lactic acidosis, especially in patients with renal
insufficiency. Always check creatinine or eGFR first.
✅ 6. Which drug class should be avoided in pregnancy due to teratogenicity?
A. Penicillins
B. Beta-blockers
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Insulin
✅ Answer: C
💡 Rationale: ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in pregnancy due to the risk of fetal renal and
cardiac malformations.
✅ 7. A nurse practitioner prescribes levothyroxine. What patient teaching is
essential?
A. Take with meals to improve absorption
B. Take at bedtime with calcium
C. Take in the morning on an empty stomach
D. Stop taking if you feel better
, ✅ Answer: C
💡 Rationale: Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach, ideally 30–60 minutes
before breakfast, to ensure optimal absorption.
✅ 8. Which of the following is a Schedule II controlled substance?
A. Alprazolam
B. Hydrocodone-acetaminophen
C. Tramadol
D. Diazepam
✅ Answer: B
💡 Rationale: Hydrocodone combinations are Schedule II due to high abuse potential. Tramadol
is Schedule IV, as are alprazolam and diazepam.
✅ 9. A patient is experiencing anaphylaxis after penicillin administration. What
is the first-line treatment?
A. Diphenhydramine IV
B. IV steroids
C. Epinephrine IM
D. Oxygen therapy
✅ Answer: C
💡 Rationale: Epinephrine IM is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis because it rapidly
reverses airway obstruction and hypotension.
✅ 10. Which antibiotic has the highest risk of Clostridioides difficile infection?
A. Azithromycin
B. Amoxicillin-clavulanate
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Doxycycline
✅ Answer: C
💡 Rationale: Fluoroquinolones like ciprofloxacin significantly disrupt normal flora and are
associated with a high risk of C. diff colitis.
✅ 11. A patient on digoxin reports seeing yellow halos around lights. What should you do
first?
Solutions.
Course
NUR 508
✅ 1. A patient is prescribed warfarin. What lab value must be monitored
regularly to assess therapeutic effect?
A. INR
B. BUN
C. Hemoglobin
D. Platelet count
✅ Answer: A
💡 Rationale: The International Normalized Ratio (INR) monitors the therapeutic level of
warfarin. Target INR for most indications is 2.0–3.0.
✅ 2. A nurse practitioner is starting lisinopril for a patient with hypertension.
What is the most serious potential adverse effect?
A. Bradycardia
B. Dry cough
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypoglycemia
✅ Answer: C
💡 Rationale: Lisinopril (an ACE inhibitor) can cause retention of potassium, potentially
leading to hyperkalemia. Although cough is common, hyperkalemia can be life-threatening.
✅ 3. A patient receiving gentamicin IV should be monitored for which major
toxicity?
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Ototoxicity
C. Hypertension
D. Diarrhea
✅ Answer: B
💡 Rationale: Aminoglycosides like gentamicin are known for causing ototoxicity and
nephrotoxicity. Baseline and ongoing hearing assessment is essential.
,✅ 4. Which of the following is true regarding the pharmacokinetics of elderly
patients?
A. Increased renal clearance
B. Increased hepatic metabolism
C. Decreased gastric pH
D. Decreased renal excretion
✅ Answer: D
💡 Rationale: Aging reduces renal function, impacting the clearance of many drugs. This
requires dosage adjustments.
✅ 5. A patient is prescribed metformin for type 2 diabetes. Which condition is
an absolute contraindication?
A. Hypertension
B. Elevated liver enzymes
C. Renal impairment
D. Hypercholesterolemia
✅ Answer: C
💡 Rationale: Metformin can cause lactic acidosis, especially in patients with renal
insufficiency. Always check creatinine or eGFR first.
✅ 6. Which drug class should be avoided in pregnancy due to teratogenicity?
A. Penicillins
B. Beta-blockers
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Insulin
✅ Answer: C
💡 Rationale: ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in pregnancy due to the risk of fetal renal and
cardiac malformations.
✅ 7. A nurse practitioner prescribes levothyroxine. What patient teaching is
essential?
A. Take with meals to improve absorption
B. Take at bedtime with calcium
C. Take in the morning on an empty stomach
D. Stop taking if you feel better
, ✅ Answer: C
💡 Rationale: Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach, ideally 30–60 minutes
before breakfast, to ensure optimal absorption.
✅ 8. Which of the following is a Schedule II controlled substance?
A. Alprazolam
B. Hydrocodone-acetaminophen
C. Tramadol
D. Diazepam
✅ Answer: B
💡 Rationale: Hydrocodone combinations are Schedule II due to high abuse potential. Tramadol
is Schedule IV, as are alprazolam and diazepam.
✅ 9. A patient is experiencing anaphylaxis after penicillin administration. What
is the first-line treatment?
A. Diphenhydramine IV
B. IV steroids
C. Epinephrine IM
D. Oxygen therapy
✅ Answer: C
💡 Rationale: Epinephrine IM is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis because it rapidly
reverses airway obstruction and hypotension.
✅ 10. Which antibiotic has the highest risk of Clostridioides difficile infection?
A. Azithromycin
B. Amoxicillin-clavulanate
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Doxycycline
✅ Answer: C
💡 Rationale: Fluoroquinolones like ciprofloxacin significantly disrupt normal flora and are
associated with a high risk of C. diff colitis.
✅ 11. A patient on digoxin reports seeing yellow halos around lights. What should you do
first?
