NUR2063 / NUR2063 Essentials of Pathophysiology Proctored Exam (Questions & 100% A+ Verified Answers)

lOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () Questions you might see on the test. Shingles is a disorder of herpes zoster and has which of the following clinical manifestations?  A) Atopic dermatitis along the dermatome  B) Long-term fibromyalgia symptoms  C) Psoriasis  D) Eruption of vesicles along sensory neuron dermatomes What are the five Ps of compartment syndrome?  A) Paresthesia, pallor, pain, pulses, paralysis  B) Paralysis, pallor, paresthesia, pain, pulselessness  C) Pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, paralysis  D) Paresthesia, pain, pallor, paresis, pulses What is the function of mitochondria within the cells?  A) Replicate proteins  B) Produce adenosine triphosphate (ATP) for energy  C) Form a protective barrier around the cell  D) Form antibodies on the outside of the cell Which of the following causes edema?  A) Hypotension  B) Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure  C) Dehydration  D) An increase in plasma proteins Osteosarcoma is one of the cancers of the bone. Which of the following describes osteosarcoma tumors?  A) Extremely malignant  B) A benign tumor of the bone  C) Not able to metastasize to distant sites  D) Not painfullOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () Clinical manifestations of fluid excess include which of the following?  A) Bounding pulses and crackles in the lungs  B) Thirst and weight loss  C) Weak pulses and hypotension  D) Dry, thick mucus membranes What is the best way to prevent the transmission of infectious agents?  A) Avoid public areas as much as possible  B) Call the practitioner for herbal supplements  C) Take antibiotics daily  D) Wash hands Which of the following would a client experience during the alarm phase of general adaptation syndrome (GAS)?  A) Decreased secretion of corticosteroids  B) Increased production of epinephrine  C) Resistance to fight-or-flight manifestations  D) Resolution of fight-or-flight manifestations Which of the following causes gout?  A) Impaired cardiac function  B) Impaired liver function  C) Loss of serotonin receptors  D) Excessive uric acid metabolism A client presents to the emergency department after sustaining burn injuries to her hands and forearms. Her skin appears red, swollen, and there are numerous fluid-filled blisters present. What type of burn would this be classified as?  A) Third-degree burn  B) Full-thickness burn  C) First-degree burn  D) Second-degree burn Which of the following is true about hyponatremia?  A) It causes an increased thirst response  B) It occurs when the body retains more salt than waterlOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe ()  C) It is potentially fatal due to swelling in the brain  D) It occurs when the body loses more water than salt Which of the following effects does histamine, an inflammatory mediator, have on the body?  A) It causes the airways to dilate  B) It causes the blood vessels to dilate  C) It causes the blood vessels to constrict  D) It dries up mucus production The bones serve as a reservoir for which ion/electrolyte?  A) Calcium  B) Potassium  C) Chloride What are matured monocytes that migrate from the blood into tissues and engulf foreign substances called?  A) Myeloid cells  B) T-cells  C) Stem cells  D) Macrophages  D) Sodium A client diagnosed with heart failure reports to the healthcare provider a feeling of dizziness upon standing. What is the client describing?  A) A contraindication  B) A sign  C) A symptom  D) Objective data Which of the following is a symptom of dehydration?  A) Crackles in the lungs  B) Slow, regular pulse  C) Thirst  D) Weight gainlOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () Intracellular fluid contains higher concentrations of which of the following?  A) Sodium  B) Potassium  C) Bicarbonate  D) Chloride Question 18: The nurse observes redness and feels warmth in an area of cellulitis. What is the direct cause of these clinical manifestations?  A) Increased interstitial fluid  B) Production of complement   C) Increased blood flow to the area  D) An increase of white blood cells (WBC) in the area Question 19: You need to explain to a colleague what defines active immunity. What would you state about active immunity?  A) "Active immunity comes from antibodies crossing the placenta during pregnancy."  B) "Active immunity comes either from an active infection or through immunization."  C) "Active immunity comes from the ingestion of breast milk."  D) "Active immunity comes from direct injection of antibodies into an unprotected person." Question 20: What immunoglobulin (Ig) mediates the Type I hypersensitivity reactions?  A) IgM  B) IgE  C) IgG  D) IgAlOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () Question 21: Which of the following symptoms describe complications of compartment syndrome?  A) Hemorrhage  B) Chronic kidney disease  C) Pain and tissue damage  D) Increased limb function Question 22: Which of the following best describes the movement of water between the interstitial and intracellular compartments?  A) Filtration  B) Active transport  C) Diffusion  D) Osmosis Question 23: Which of the following conditions is an example of a type II hypersensitivity?  A) Contact dermatitis  B) Anaphylaxis  C) Rheumatoid arthritis  D) Hemolytic disease of the newborn (erythroblastosis fetalis) Question 24: What is a complication of a bone fracture that causes decreased blood flow and is painful?  A) Ecchymosis  B) Inflammation  C) Compartment syndrome  D) RicketslOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () Question 25: What causes osteoporosis?  A) Consuming calcium supplements  B) An imbalance of bone resorption and bone formation  C) Long term weight-bearing exercise  D) Increased circulating estrogen Question 26: Fluid excretion occurs by which of the following?  A) Crying and drinking  B) Inhalation and spitting  C) Urination and sweating  D) Drinking and panting Question 27: A client presents with a single fracture straight across the bone without a break in alignment, as shown in the image below. The nurse knows this is classified as which type of fracture?  A) Simple transverse fracture  B) Compound comminuted fracture  C) Greenstick fracture  D) Oblique compound fracturelOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () Question 28: What are the steps of carcinogenesis?  A) Initiation, promotion, progression  B) Initiation, angiogenesis, progression  C) Promotion, initiation, metastasis  D) Progression, initiation, differentiation Question 29: What happens to a client with muscular dystrophy?  A) Increased ability to generate muscle  B) Progressive loss of muscle tissues  C) Complication of rheumatic fever  D) Progressive loss of fat and fibrous tissue Question 30: The fight or flight response in a client is manifested by which of the following? (Select all that apply.)  A) Dilated pupils  B) Increased heart rate  C) Decreased heart rate  D) Constricted pupils  E) Increased blood pressure  F) Decreased blood pressure Question 31: What is one of the properties of cancer cells?  A) Genetically stable  B) The ability to invade local tissue and overrun neighboring cells  C) Planned cell death (apoptosis)  D) Cannot migrate to distant tissueslOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () Question 32: Which of the following topics are components of pathophysiology? (Select all that apply.)  A) Treatment implications  B) Clinical manifestations  C) Etiology  D) Study of populations  E) Pathogenesis Question 33: What happens when cells metastasize?  A) Cancer cells enlarge locally only  B) Cancer cells stabilize in the host tissue  C) Cancer cells die off by apoptosis  D) Cancer cells migrate to distant sites Question 34: How does rheumatoid arthritis, an autoimmune condition, manifest?  A) The ability to increase activity over time  B) Inability to digest high calcium foods  C) Deformities in the facial bones  D) Chronic inflammation in affected joints Question 35: Inflammation is a protective mechanism that protects the body when injured. What are the cardinal signs of inflammation? (Select all that apply.)  A) Increased function  B) Pallor  C) Swelling  D) Pain  E) Redness  F) Heat  G) Loss of functionlOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () Question 36: What chemical does the body release during a stress response?  A) Estrogen  B) Epinephrine  C) Progesterone  D) Histamine Question 37: On a complete blood count (CBC) with differential, a client with allergies will have high levels of which of the following?  A) Platelets  B) Basophils  C) Hemoglobin  D) Red blood cells Question 38: Which of the following is a simple lab test that can measure inflammation in a client?  A) Mantoux test  B) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate  C) Urinalysis  D) Arterial blood gas Question 39: A client has a potassium of 1.9 mEq/L. Which of the following is a potential complication of this electrolyte imbalance?  A) Cardiac arrhythmias  B) Bone fractureslOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe ()  C) Immobility  D) Skin discoloration Question 40: What is associated with psoriatic arthritis?  A) Allergies  B) Degenerative joint changes  C) Psoriasis  D) Rheumatoid arthritis Question 41: Which of the following describes homeostasis?  A) A process that allows water molecules to cross a plasma membrane  B) It is equivalent to the path of disease causation  C) The ability of the organism to successfully adapt to changes  D) A state of equilibrium or balance within the organism to maintain usual function Question 42: Which of the following causes itchy linear burrows on the hands and wrists?  A) Ticks  B) Bed bugs  C) Scabies  D) Fleas Question 43:lOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) causes the release of many hormones, including angiotensin I, angiotensin II, and aldosterone. Which of the following are effects of the RAAS?  A) Vasoconstriction and increased blood pressure  B) Increased heart rate and pupil dilation  C) Vasodilation and decreased blood pressure  D) Water retention and sodium elimination Question 44: What causes osteoarthritis or degenerative joint disease?  A) The progressive loss of joint function due to "wear and tear"  B) Buildup of uric acid crystals in the joint  C) Immune system dysfunction  D) Having psoriasis Question 45: Extracellular fluid contains higher concentrations of which of the following?  A) Calcium and phosphate  B) Sodium and potassium  C) Chloride and magnesium  D) Sodium and chloride Question 46: Fluid volume deficits may result from which of the following?  A) Chronic heart failure  B) End-stage kidney failure  C) Cirrhosis  D) Vomiting and diarrhealOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () Question 47: What is cachexia?  A) An infection from cancer  B) A decreased metabolic rate  C) A condition caused by smoking during cancer therapy  D) Overall weight loss and weakness Question 48: What typically causes contact dermatitis?  A) Contact with a skin allergen  B) Staphylococcal infection  C) A long-term disorder from gout  D) Fungal infection Question 49: Why is fibromyalgia frequently a misunderstood disorder?  A) The client complains of hyperactivity  B) The client has pain but no specific diagnostics  C) The client cannot manage blood sugars  D) The client wants the attention of the practitionerlOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () Question 50: What electrolyte imbalance would you see in a client with muscle tetany, positive Trousseau and Chvostek signs, and increased muscle excitability?  A) Aluminum  B) Calcium  C) Sodium  D) Potassium Here is the complete list of all 50 questions and their answers from your request: 51. An infection in a bone, which can lead to an abscess formation and sequestrum if not properly cared for, is known as which of the following? Answer: A. Osteomyelitis B. Rickets C. Osteochondroma D. Osteitis 52. A tear in a ligament is known as which of the following? Answer: A. Fracture B. Strain C. Disunion D. SprainlOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () 53. Chronic, progressive, inflammatory disease of bones and joints caused by degenerative changes in the cartilage is known as which of the following? Answer: A. Chondromalacia B. Osteochondroma C. Osteoarthritis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 54. What causes osteoarthritis or degenerative joint disease? Answer: A. Progressive loss of joint function due to repetitive use B. Buildup of uric acid crystals in the joint C. Immune system dysfunction D. Having a history of psoriasis 55. Which of the following causes gout? Answer: A. Loss of serotonin receptors B. Excessive uric acid metabolism C. Impaired liver function D. Impaired cardiac function 56. Which of the following describes a furuncle? Answer: A. Small vesicles that erupt, forming a honey-colored crust B. Bright red or painful area that may turn necrotic at the center C. Firm, red, painful nodule filled with purulent exudate D. Erythema extending from an initial area of insultlOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () 57. Rosacea is a skin condition in which chronic inflammation and increased blood flow occurs to affected areas. Which of the following are present? Answer: A. Nevi that change in appearance B. Erythema and spiderlike blood vessels C. Bleeding cysts and ulcerations D. Scaly, reddened rash occurring on the arms or legs 58. Which of the following areas of the body is skin cancer most commonly found on? Answer: A. On the arms B. On the bottoms of the feet C. On the breasts D. On the back of the legs 59. Fluid volume deficits may result from which of the following? Answer: A. Chronic heart failure B. End-stage kidney failure C. Vomiting and diarrhea D. Cirrhosis 60. Which area of the body accounts for the highest loss of daily fluids? Answer: A. Urinary tract B. Digestive tract C. Integument D. Respiratory tractlOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () 61. Which of the following intravenous solutions would cause fluid to shift from the intracellular space to the extracellular space? Answer: A. Hypertonic solution B. Isotonic solution C. Hypotonic solution D. Isometric solution 62. Which of the following is the normal range for serum potassium? Answer: A. 3.5-5 mEq/L B. 135-145 mEq/L C. 8.5-10.2 mg/dL D. 1.8-2.5 mg/dL 63. Which of the following are examples of passive immunity? (Select all that apply.) Answer: A. Antibodies transferred through the placenta during pregnancy B. Immunoglobulin injection to treat immunological diseases C. Antibodies transferred through breastmilk to a breastfeeding newborn D. Pathogens entering the body to cause infection E. Attenuated virus injected into the body during vaccinationlOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () 64. Which of the following is part of the first line of defense against disease? Answer: A. Intact skin B. Phagocytes C. T lymphocytes D. Fever 65. Which of the following best defines hypersensitivity of the immune system? Answer: A. A reduced immune response to a sensitizing antigen B. A normal immune response to an infectious agent C. An excessive or inappropriate response of the immune system to a sensitizing antigen D. Antigenic desensitization of the immune system 66. Which of the following conditions is a chronic, autoimmune, inflammatory disorder manifested by a “butterfly rash” on the face, polyarthritis, muscle pain, and inflammation throughout the kidneys, lungs, and heart? Answer: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Rosacea D. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome 67. Which of the following is an example of passive immunity? Answer: A. Receiving the influenza vaccination B. Becoming ill after infection with influenza C. Injection with antigens from the influenza virus D. Placental mom-to-baby transfer of influenza antibodieslOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () 68. In which of the following phases of carcinogenesis do cancerous cells invade and metastasize? Answer: A. Initiation B. Promotion C. Progression D. Remission 69. Which of the following would provide active immunity? Answer: A. Hepatitis B immune globulin for a needle-stick injury B. Antibodies transferred through breastfeeding C. Polio vaccine to prevent poliomyelitis D. Tetanus antitoxin 70. Which of the following disorders begins with inflammation and edema of the synovial membranes surrounding the joint? Answer: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Scleroderma C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Sjögren’s syndromelOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () 71. Which of the following describes the role of neutrophils during the inflammatory process? Answer: A. They form antibodies to fight infection B. They release histamine, a potent vasodilator C. They remove microbes and cellular debris through the process of phagocytosis D. They release fibronectin to form a meshwork trap and stimulate the intrinsic clotting cascade 72. An athlete experiences ankle swelling after a sprain. Which of the following is the direct cause of this clinical manifestation? Answer: A. Increased capillary permeability B. Production of bradykinin C. Vasoconstriction of arteries in the injured extremity D. Phagocytosis of foreign substances 73. Which of the following autoimmune disorders presents with fever, joint pain, malaise, weight loss, and the characteristic butterfly rash? Answer: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Scleroderma C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Sjögren’s syndrome 74. What is a complication of a bone fracture that results in decreased blood flow and extreme pain? Answer: A. Severe ecchymosis B. Minimal edema C. Compartment syndrome D. RicketslOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () 75. A skeletal fracture that occurs horizontally across the bone shaft is classified as which of the following? Answer: A. Transverse fracture B. Oblique fracture C. Spiral fracture D. Greenstick fracture 76. Which clinical finding would be expected in the client with muscular dystrophy? Answer: A. Brittle bones B. Muscle spasm C. Yellow color to the skin D. Lower extremity swelling 77. Which statement is correct regarding systemic lupus erythematosus? Answer: A. It is more common in men B. It is a chronic inflammatory disease C. It only affects one organ system D. It is an acute disorderlOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () 78. Which arthritic musculoskeletal disorder is associated with localized joint pain, deformity, and inflammation along with systemic signs and symptoms of inflammatory response? Answer: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Osteoarthritis C. Gout D. Psoriatic arthritis 79. A client with a herniated intervertebral disc has experienced limited mobility and paresthesia in the lower extremities. Which of the following explains this symptom? Answer: A. The client also injured their lower extremities when their intervertebral disc herniated B. The client fractured their femur C. The client has compartment syndrome D. Pressure from the herniation on the spinal cord is interfering with nerve impulse transmission 80. A child presents with a vitamin D deficiency and a bowlegged appearance. This information supports a diagnosis of which of the following? Answer: A. Rickets B. Osteoporosis 81. How does the joint appear during an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis? Answer: A. Relatively normal B. Enlarged, firm, crepitus with movement C. Deformed, pale, and nodular D. Red, warm, swollen, and tender to touchlOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () 82. A nurse who recently suffered a femur fracture appears confused and complains of shortness of breath. What does the nurse suspect? Answer: A. Osteomyelitis B. A fat embolism C. Compartment syndrome D. Osteonecrosis 83. A 4-year-old client experienced a superficial burn to her hand after touching a heated frying pan. Which type of burn is this? Answer: A. First degree burn B. Wet burn C. Second degree burn D. Chemical burn 84 Which of the following types of bacteria are associated with bacterial skin infections? Answer: A. Streptococcus and Staphylococcus B. Campylobacter and Streptococcus C. Varicella Zoster and Human Papillomavirus D. Varicella Zoster and EscherichialOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () 85. Which of the following individuals would be at greatest risk for an opportunistic infection? Answer: (A) 24-year-old who is immunocompromised B) 70-year-old with congestive heart failure C) 18-year-old with diabetes D) 30-year-old with pneumonia 86. Which of the following describes the role of neutrophils during the inflammatory process? Answer: A) They release histamine, a potent vasodilator B) They form antibodies to fight infection C) They remove microbes and cellular debris through the process of phagocytosis D) They release fibronectin to form a meshwork trap and stimulate the intrinsic clotting cascade 87. Which of the following describes the role of mast cells in the inflammatory process? Answer: A) They release fibronectin to form a meshwork trap and stimulate clotting B) They form antibodies to fight infection C) They release histamine, a potent vasodilator D) They remove microbes and cellular debris through phagocytosislOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () 88. Which autoimmune disorder presents with fever, joint pain, malaise, weight loss, and a butterfly rash? Answer: A) Rheumatoid arthritis B) Scleroderma C) Sjögren’s syndrome D) Systemic lupus erythematosus 89. A nurse caring for a client with contact dermatitis expects which finding? Answer: A) Report of generalized joint discomfort B) Report of recent exposure to a skin irritant C) Denial of pruritus D) Systemic symptoms including elevated temperature 90. Which of the following changes to a skin mole may indicate skin cancer? Answer: A) Asymmetry of the lesion B) Color is consistent throughout the marking C) Borders are regular D) Diameter of the lesion is small 91. What causes osteoarthritis or degenerative joint disease? Answer: A) Buildup of uric acid crystals in the joint B) Having a history of psoriasis C) Immune system dysfunction D) Progressive loss of joint function due to repetitive uselOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () 92. Which disorder is caused by a genetic mutation that lowers collagen in bones, making them brittle? Answer: A) Hip dysplasia B) Osteogenesis Imperfecta C) Osteomalacia D) Osteoporosis 15. Which term describes muscle wasting? Answer: A) Atrophy B) Myositis C) Hypertrophy D) Ankylosis 16. Which musculoskeletal disorder is autoimmune? Answer: A) Muscular dystrophy B) Osteoarthritis C) Bone fracture D) Rheumatoid arthritis 17. What term refers to an increase in the number of cells in tissue? Answer: A) Ischemia B) Hyperplasia C) Hypertrophy D) AtrophylOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () 18. Which finding indicates altered homeostasis? Answer: A) Joint stiffness B) Fever C) Throat pain D) Positive throat culture 20. Which are examples of passive immunity? (Select all that apply.) Answer: A) Immunoglobulin injection B) Antibodies from the placenta C) Pathogens entering the body D) Attenuated virus from vaccination E) Antibodies in breastmilk 21. What are complications of bone fractures? (Select all that apply.) Answer: A) Fat embolism B) Osteogenesis C) Compartment syndrome D) Osteoporosis E) Osteomyelitis 22. Poison ivy rash is an example of what? Answer: A) Anaphylaxis B) Delayed hypersensitivitylOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () C) Viral disease D) Serum sickness 24. What is an example of artificial active immunity? Answer: A) Injection of antibodies B) Becoming ill from infection C) Receiving a vaccination D) Antibodies from the placenta 25. What effect does histamine have? Answer: A) Dries up mucus B) Dilates airways C) Constricts blood vessels D) Dilates blood vessels 26. Which is part of the adaptive immune response? Answer: A) The inflammatory response B) The skin C) Lysosomes in saliva D) AntibodieslOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () 34. A blood pH of 7.58 with bicarbonate of 31 indicates? Answer: A) Respiratory alkalosis B) Metabolic acidosis C) Metabolic alkalosis with hypoxemia D) Respiratory acidosis 37. What causes tinea infections? Answer: A) Tinea fungi B) Pediculosis C) Scabies D) Verrucae 38. Which hypersensitivity causes hives? Answer: A) Type III B) Type I C) Type II D) Type IV 41. Lateral curvature of the thoracic spine is known as? Answer: A) Scoliosis B) Sarcoidosis C) Lordosis D) KyphosislOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () 42. Fibromyalgia is a chronic musculoskeletal disorder characterized by? Answer: A) Muscle pain in the back and gastrointestinal symptoms B) Neurologic pain in the skeletal muscles C) Diffuse pain, fatigue, and tender points D) Pain resulting from joint and muscle inflammation 43. Which statement is true regarding osteoarthritis? Answer: A) It is an inflammatory disease B) There is progressive loss of articular cartilage C) The shoulder joint is most frequently affected D) It is common in young individuals 46. Why is fibromyalgia often misunderstood? Answer: A) The client has pain but no specific diagnostics B) The client cannot manage blood sugars C) The client complains of hyperactivity D) The client seeks attention from the practitioner 47. What is a typical characteristic of osteoarthritis pain? Answer: A) Increases with weight-bearing and activity B) Decreases over timelOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () C) Quite severe in the early stages D) Aggravated by general muscle aching What causes osteoarthritis or degenerative joint disease? Having a history of psoriasislOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () Which condition indicates the resistance stage of general adaption syndrome? a. increased release of catecholamines and cortisol b. inability to maintain homeostasis through compensatory mechanisms c. a reuturn to normal sympathetic nervous system function d. stressor is prolonged and has overwhelmed the body What causes osteoarthritis or degenerative joint disease? a. immune system dysfunction b. having a history of psoriasis c. buildup of uric acid crystals in the joint d. wear-and-tear of a localized joint Which type of gangrene develops because of the presence of an anaerobic bacterium such as Clostridium? a. wet gangrene b. dry gangrene c. gas gangrene d. fouriner gangrene Which of the following intravenous solutions would cause fluid to shift from the intracellular space to the extracellular space? A. Isometric solution B. Isotonic solution C. Hypotonic solution D. Hypertonic solution Which condition would result from a blood pH of 7.6? A. Alkalosis B. Neutral C. Isotonic Acidosis D AcidosislOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () Which solution causes fluid to shift from the intravascular components to the intracellular space leading to the swelling of the cell? A. Hypertonic solution B. Hypotonic solution C. Isotonic solution D. Normal saline A client sustained burn injuries to the torso and legs. The injured skin area appeared blackened and charred with underlying adipose tissue exposed. Which type of burn occurred? A. Third degree burn B. Second degree burn C. First degree burn D. Partial thickness burn Sign or Symptom? Patient is complaining of dizziness when standing up. Symptom Homeostasis State of equilibrium/balance in the body During the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS), What chemicals are increased during the alarm phase? Epinephrine, AKA Catecholamines What is the function of Mitochondria? Produce energy/ATPlOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () Hyperplasia Increase in the number of cells in organs/tissues. Example of systemic alteration in homeostasis? Fever What does the Endoplasmic Reticulum contain and what do they do? Ribosomes, make proteins Which electrolytes are found extracellular? Sodium & Chloride Which electrolyte is being regulated by Aldosterone and the Kidneys? Sodium Which organelle within cells contain genetic information? Nucleus Which organelle within cells is responsible for sorting and packaging proteins? Golgi apparatus AKA Golgi Complex Which organelles digest the fatigued organelles/material within the cell? Lysosomes Which structure in the cell is a semipermeable lipid bi-layer? Cell Membrane AKA Plasma MembranelOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () Which process involves 1 cell dividing into 2 genetically identical and equal daughter cells? Mitosis Which type of tissue is made of tightly packed cells and acts as a barrier? Epithelial Tissue What term do we use when we talk about uncontrolled proliferation with loss/no differentiation? Anaplasia What can be a cause of Edema? Hydrostatic Pressure What actions may cause fluid volume deficits? Vomiting & Diarrhea Which electrolyte will be deficient if patient presents with Tetany, the Chvostek's sign, or Trousseau's sign? (Stored in bones!) Calcium What is Tetany? Involuntary contraction of muscles, symptoms include numbness around the mouth, muscle cramps, and paresthesias affecting the hands and feet, due to hypocalcemialOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () What is the Chvostek's sign? Contraction of the ipsilateral facial muscles elicited by tapping the facial nerve just anterior to the ear, due to hypocalcemia What is Trousseau's sign? Involuntary contraction of the muscles in the hand and wrist that usually occurs after the compression of the upper arm with a blood pressure cuff. Also a sign of hypoglycemia What is a symptom of dehydration? Thirst, Weak, Lethargic What is the movement of water between compartments called? Osmosis If patient has fluid excess in body, what are some SIGNS/manifestations? Bounding pulses, High B.P., Crackles in the lungs Which electrolyte is in high concentration intracellular? Potassium How do we naturally lose/excrete lots of fluids? Urination and Sweating What is Hyponatremia? What can it result in? Low sodium, can result in brain swelling (could be deadly)lOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () Which system/organ is affected by sodium levels/changes? Neuro, brain Which system/organ is affected by potassium levels/changes? Cardiac, heart Patient's potassium level is 1.5, what is a complication? Heart Arrhythmias; irregular heart beats What can be a reason for Metabolic Alkalosis? Vomiting; reduces acid and raises pH in body. NOT RELATED TO LUNGS/RESPIRATORY What is the movement of solutes/salts from low to high concentration using energy? Active Transport Which type of IV solution can cause the fluid to shift from intracellular space to extracellular space? Hypertonic What is isotonic solution? The concentration of solutes is equal inside and outside the cell. What is the concentration of normal saline (isotonic)? 0.9% NaCllOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () Normal Range of Sodium (Na+)? 135-145 mEq/L Normal Range of Potassium (K+)? 3.5-5.0 mEq/L Normal Range of Calcium (Ca++)? 4-5 mEq/L (9-11 mg/dL) Normal Range of Magnesium (Mg++)? 1.8-2.5 mEq/L Normal Range of Phosphate (PO4^-3)? 2.5-4.5 mEq/L Normal Range of Chloride (Cl-)? 98-108 mEq/L Normal Range of pH? 7.35-7.45 Normal Range of bicarbonate (HCO3)? 22-26 mEq/L Normal Range of Carbon dioxide (CO2)? 35-45 mm HglOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () Normal range of oxygen saturation? 95-100% Which ion is responsible for acid/base imbalance? Hydrogen Which patient will be at higher risk of hypocalcemia? Patient with alcohol abuse What is the term for the process of "cell eating"? Phagocytosis What is the term for the process of "cell drinking"? Pinocytosis What is the process where solutes move from high concentration to low concentration? Diffusion What is the process where solutes are transported by "helper" carrier molecule? Facilitated Diffusion If cells make protein-containing vesicles and expel them to the outside it is called? ExocytosislOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () Which type of transport uses the sodium-potassium pump? Active Transport; uses ATP Which type of solution will cause cell swelling? Hypotonic Is carbon dioxide (CO2) an acidic or alkalotic byproduct of the cell? Acidic When there is a fluid volume deficit in the body (dehydration) what will the body exhibit? Thirst and Dry mucous membranes An area of cellulitis, this area is red and warm. Why? Increased blood flow due to histamine; secreted by mast cells Example of Passive Immunity? Breast Milk (IgA); IgA also present in saliva and tears Role of neutrophils in inflammation? Responsible for phagocytosis; "eat" any foreign substance detected by the body Which cells are mature monocytes, migrate through the blood, and engulf foreign antigens in the body? MacrophageslOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () If patient has allergies, what type of cells are increased in their blood? Basophils and Eosinophils What is the best way to prevent transmission of infection? Washing your hands If patient has a sprain/strain on ankle and is swollen (edema), which cells are responsible for creating antibodies? B-Cells IgG (immunoglobulin G) Immunoglobulin that is for general immunity. It can cross the placental barrier from mother to baby and gives the baby a short-term immunity (6 months) Manifestation of local inflammations? (5 answers) Redness, swelling, warmth, pain, loss of function Is fever a manifestation of local or systemic inflammation? Systemic Proteins that are secreted by virus-infected cells? (Stops replication of the virus) Interferons What is our first barrier to any microbes? Skin & Mucous membraneslOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () What autoimmune disease correlates with "butterfly rash"? Lupus What autoimmune disease causes inflammation around the synovial membranes of the joints? Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) Patient's lab values show elevated neutrophil levels. What type of infection does this show? Bacterial Infections Histamine is a ? Vasodilator; increases blood flow to a certain area Example of artificial active immunity? Vaccinations Example of natural active immunity? When body is exposed to viral/bacterial infection and produces antibodies. Example of artificial passive immunity? Infusion of immunoglobulins Example of natural passive immunity? Breastfeeding, placentalOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () What type of cells are specialized and associated with the adaptive immune response? Lymphocytes What type of cells are associated with innate immune response? Macrophages What are opportunistic infections? An infection that attacks a person with a weakened immune system. A foreign body/agent that triggers the immune response? Antigen When monocytes are differentiated, they create _____________? Macrophages What type of cells develop from B cells and are responsible for making antibodies? Plasma Cells Where do T cells mature? Thymus Gland Where do B cells mature? Bone Marrow What molecules are released by cells infected by bacteria, to regulate body temperature? PyrogenslOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () Which type of T cells destroy virus-infected cells when releasing lymphokines? Cytotoxic T cells / Killer T cells Type of transplant where tissues/organs of same species are used, but are not identical? Allogeneic Transplant Type of transplant where tissues/organs of different species are used? Xenogeneic Transplant Transplant rejection reaction that occurs 4 days-3 months after the transplant? Acute Rejection Reaction Which type of immunoglobulin will be found in Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction? IgE Example of Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction? Peanut allergies, hives Example of Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction (AKA Cytotoxic Hypersensitivity Reaction) Hemolytic Disease of Newborn AKA Erythroblastosis fetalis; Mother's antibodies don't recognize the fetus and begin to attack it. Which lab test will be increased during inflammation? ESRlOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () Example of Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction (AKA Delayed Hypersensitivity Reaction)? Poison Ivy & Mantoux Test (TB Test) Which type of immunoglobulin will be found in Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction? IgG or IgM Cell lysis occurs due to activation of ____________ and ____________. Complement , Phagocytosis Type 3 hypersensitivity (Immune complex-mediated) Circulating antigen-antibody complexes accumulate in tissue, triggering inflammation. Example of Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction? Lupus, Rheumatoid Arthritis When body is exposed to chronic stress, what do we exhibit? High BP, Rapid HR, High Blood Sugar, Depression Class review. 525. Rickets and Osteomalacia – Signs and Differences  Rickets: Occurs in children due to vitamin D deficiency, leading to soft bones, bowed legs, and skeletal deformities.  Osteomalacia: Occurs in adults due to the same deficiency, causing weak bones, muscle weakness, and bone pain.  Diagnosis: Serum vitamin D, calcium, and phosphate levels, X-rays.lOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe ()  Treatment: Vitamin D and calcium supplementation(essentials-of-pathophys…). Signs of Hypokalemia (232)  Cause: Diuretics, vomiting, diarrhea, or inadequate potassium intake.  Symptoms: Muscle weakness, cramps, fatigue, arrhythmias (e.g., irregular heartbeat), constipation.  Diagnosis: Serum potassium levels 3.5 mEq/L.  Treatment: Oral or IV potassium supplementation, treat underlying cause(essentials-ofpathophys…). Types of Fractures – Transverse, Spiral, Horizontal, Oblique  Transverse: A fracture straight across the bone.  Spiral: A twisting injury causes the fracture to spiral along the bone's length.  Oblique: A diagonal fracture across the bone.  Horizontal: Runs perpendicular to the bone’s axis.  Diagnosis: X-ray or CT scan.  Treatment: Immobilization, casting, surgery if needed (e.g., pins, plates)(essentials-ofpathophys…). 516. Manifestation of Fat Embolism  Cause: Release of fat globules into the bloodstream after long bone fractures or orthopedic surgery.  Symptoms: Shortness of breath, confusion, petechial rash (small red dots).  Diagnosis: Clinical presentation, chest X-ray (showing infiltrates).  Treatment: Oxygen therapy, mechanical ventilation, supportive care(essentials-ofpathophys…). Difference Between Sprain and Strain (519-520)  Sprain: Injury to ligaments (e.g., ankle sprain).lOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe ()  Strain: Injury to muscles or tendons (e.g., pulled hamstring).  Symptoms: Pain, swelling, reduced mobility.  Treatment: RICE (Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation), NSAIDs, physical therapy (essentials-of-pathophys…). 510-512. Differentiate Kyphosis, Lordosis, and Scoliosis Kyphosis (Hunchback)  Definition: Exaggerated outward curve of the thoracic spine (upper back).  Signs: Rounded upper back.  Cause: Poor posture, osteoporosis, or congenital conditions. Lordosis (Swayback)  Definition: Exaggerated inward curve of the lumbar spine (lower back).  Signs: Lower back curves in, causing the stomach to protrude.  Cause: Obesity, pregnancy, or weak core muscles. Scoliosis  Definition: Side-to-side curvature of the spine.  Signs: Uneven shoulders or hips, one shoulder blade more prominent.  Cause: Idiopathic (unknown), congenital, or neuromuscular conditions. Diagnosis  Method: o Physical exam (assessing posture and movement). o X-ray: Confirms the degree and location of spinal curvature. Treatment  Mild Cases: o Bracing: To stop further curvature in children or teens. o Physical Therapy: Exercises to strengthen muscles and improve posture.  Severe Cases: o Surgery: Spinal fusion or other corrective procedures if curvature impacts function or causes pain.lOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () 517. Define Osteomyelitis  Definition: Infection of the bone, typically caused by bacteria (e.g., Staphylococcus aureus).  Symptoms: Fever, bone pain, swelling, redness.  Diagnosis: Blood tests, MRI, or bone biopsy.  Treatment: Antibiotics, possible surgery to remove infected bone tissue(essentials-ofpathophys…). Respiratory Alkalosis and Acidosis (239-243)  Respiratory Alkalosis: o Cause: Hyperventilation (excess CO₂ loss). o Symptoms: Lightheadedness, tingling, confusion. o Treatment: Breathe into a paper bag or treat the underlying cause (e.g., anxiety).  Respiratory Acidosis: o Cause: Hypoventilation (CO₂ retention). o Symptoms: Confusion, shortness of breath, drowsiness. o Treatment: Improve ventilation (oxygen therapy, bronchodilators)(essentials-ofpathophys…). Fluid Volume Excess (Hypervolemia)  Lung Sounds: Crackles – These are popping or bubbling sounds heard during inhalation, indicating fluid buildup in the alveoli.  Cause: o Heart failure: The heart can't pump effectively, leading to fluid backup in the lungs. o Renal failure: The kidneys can't eliminate excess fluid. o IV fluids: Over-infusion or rapid fluid replacement. S/S of Fluid Volume Excess  Respiratory: o Crackles in the lungslOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () o Shortness of breath (dyspnea) o Cough (possibly with frothy sputum)  Cardiovascular: o Increased blood pressure (hypertension) o Bounding pulse o Jugular vein distension (JVD)  Edema: o Swelling in extremities (peripheral edema) o Pitting edema in severe cases  Weight gain: o Rapid increase in body weight  Neurological: o Headache o Confusion (in severe cases due to brain swelling or oxygen deprivation)  Urinary: o Decreased urine output in renal failure case Diagnosis  Physical Exam: Listening for crackles with a stethoscope over the lung fields.  Chest X-ray: Detects pulmonary congestion or fluid accumulation. Treatment  Diuretics: o **Furosemide Causes of Fluid Volume Deficit (Vomiting, Diarrhea) – 223  Cause: Loss of body fluids through vomiting, diarrhea, or excessive sweating.  Symptoms: Dizziness, low blood pressure, dry mouth, increased heart rate.  Treatment: Oral rehydration or IV fluids (normal saline)(essentials-of-pathophys…). 527-532. Differentiate Gout, Rheumatoid Arthritis, and Osteoarthritis  Gout: Uric acid buildup causing crystal deposits in joints (common in big toe).  Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA): Autoimmune disease causing joint inflammation.lOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe ()  Osteoarthritis (OA): Degenerative joint disease from wear and tear.  Diagnosis: Blood tests (uric acid for gout, RF for RA), X-rays.  Treatment: NSAIDs, corticosteroids, DMARDs (RA), allopurinol (gout)(essentials-ofpathophys…). Classic Signs of Inflammation  Signs: o Warmth o Swelling o Pain o Redness o Loss of function  Treatment: NSAIDs, corticosteroids, rest(essentials-of-pathophys…). What is Paget Disease? (526)  Definition: Chronic bone disorder causing abnormal bone remodeling, leading to brittle, enlarged bones.  Symptoms: Bone pain, deformities, fractures.  Diagnosis: X-rays, blood tests (elevated alkaline phosphatase).  Treatment: Bisphosphonates, pain relief, physical therapy(essentials-of-pathophys…). Normal Lab Values – Sodium, Calcium, Potassium, Chloride (228-233)  Sodium: 135-145 mEq/L  Calcium: 8.5-10.5 mg/dL  Potassium: 3.5-5.0 mEq/L  Chloride: 96-106 mEq/L(essentials-of-pathophys…). Five Ps of Compartment Syndrome 1. Pain (out of proportion to injury)lOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () 2. Pallor (pale skin) 3. Paresthesia (numbness/tingling) 4. Paralysis (inability to move) 5. Pulselessness (absent pulse)  Treatment: Immediate fasciotomy to relieve pressure(essentials-of-pathophys…). Explain the Pathophysiology of Osteoporosis (522)  Cause: Imbalance between bone resorption and bone formation (common in postmenopausal women).  Pathophysiology: Bones become porous and brittle, increasing fracture risk.  Diagnosis: Bone density scan (DEXA).  Treatment: Calcium and vitamin D supplements, bisphosphonates, weight-bearing exercises(essentials-of-pathophys…). 233. Signs of Hypocalcemia – Trousseau's and Chvostek's Signs  Trousseau's Sign: Hand spasm when inflating a blood pressure cuff.  Chvostek's Sign: Facial twitching when tapping the facial nerve.  Cause: Hypocalcemia (low calcium levels).  Diagnosis: Serum calcium levels 8.5 mg/dL.  Treatment: Calcium supplementation (oral or IV)(essentials-of-pathophys…). 535. Pathophysiology of Muscular Dystrophy  Cause: Genetic mutation affecting dystrophin (a protein essential for muscle function).  Pathophysiology: Progressive muscle weakness due to the degeneration and replacement of muscle fibers with fat and scar tissue.  Diagnosis: Muscle biopsy, creatine kinase (CK) blood tests, and genetic testing.  Treatment: No cure. Management includes physical therapy, corticosteroids to slow muscle damage, and assistive devices (wheelchairs)(essentials-of-pathophys…). 516. What is Osteonecrosis?lOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe ()  Definition: Also known as avascular necrosis, it occurs when bone tissue dies due to loss of blood supply.  Causes: Trauma, long-term corticosteroid use, alcohol abuse, or blood clots.  Diagnosis: X-rays, MRI, or bone scans.  Treatment: Pain relief (NSAIDs), physical therapy, core decompression surgery, or joint replacement if severe(essentials-of-pathophys…). 522. What is Psoriatic Arthritis?  Definition: A chronic form of arthritis associated with psoriasis, an autoimmune skin condition.  Pathophysiology: The immune system attacks joints and skin, causing inflammation, pain, stiffness, and swelling.  Diagnosis: Clinical history (psoriasis), blood tests (to rule out rheumatoid arthritis), and joint imaging (X-rays, MRI).  Treatment: NSAIDs, disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs), and biologic therapies (TNF inhibitors)(essentials-of-pathophys…). 52-53. What are T Cells and B Cells? Thymus and Bone Marrow Involvement  T Cells: Develop in the thymus and play a role in cell-mediated immunity, directly attacking infected cells.  B Cells: Mature in the bone marrow and are responsible for humoral immunity by producing antibodies to fight infections(essentials-of-pathophys…). 221. Signs of Fluid Volume Excess  Signs: o Bounding pulses o Crackles in lungs (pulmonary edema) o Peripheral edema o Hypertension  Diagnosis: Physical examination, chest X-ray, and monitoring weight gain and urine output.lOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe ()  Treatment: Diuretics (e.g., furosemide), fluid restriction, and managing the underlying cause (e.g., heart failure)(essentials-of-pathophys…). Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) – Butterfly Rash  Cause: Autoimmune disease where the immune system attacks healthy tissues.  Sign: A butterfly-shaped rash across the nose and cheeks, often triggered by sun exposure.  Diagnosis: Blood tests (ANA, anti-dsDNA) and clinical symptoms.  Treatment: NSAIDs, corticosteroids, and immunosuppressive drugs (e.g., hydroxychloroquine)(essentials-of-pathophys…). Pathophysiology of Ankylosing Spondylitis  Cause: Genetic predisposition (HLA-B27 gene).  Pathophysiology: Inflammation leads to fusion of the spinal vertebrae, resulting in reduced flexibility and pain.  Diagnosis: X-rays, MRI, and blood tests (HLA-B27).  Treatment: NSAIDs, physical therapy, and TNF blockers(essentials-of-pathophys…). 55. Examples of Hypersensitivity Reactions (Table 2-4) 1. Type I: IgE-mediated (e.g., anaphylaxis, asthma). 2. Type II: Antibody-mediated cytotoxicity (e.g., hemolytic anemia). 3. Type III: Immune complex-mediated (e.g., lupus). 4. Type IV: Delayed T-cell mediated (e.g., contact dermatitis, TB test)(essentials-ofpathophys…). 537. Different Types of Bone Cancer  Osteosarcoma: Affects long bones, common in adolescents.  Chondrosarcoma: Cancer of cartilage, common in adults.  Ewing's Sarcoma: Affects bones and soft tissues, mostly in children and young adults.lOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe ()  Diagnosis: X-rays, CT scan, MRI, and biopsy.  Treatment: Chemotherapy, radiation, and surgical removal of the tumor(essentials-ofpathophys…). Effect of Histamine on Blood Vessels  Effect: o Vasodilation (widening of blood vessels). o Increased capillary permeability, leading to swelling. o Hypotension (low blood pressure) in severe cases.  Treatment: Antihistamines for allergic reactions, epinephrine for anaphylaxis(essentialsof-pathophys…). 64. What is Opportunistic Infection?  Definition: Infections caused by organisms that usually do not cause disease in healthy individuals but affect people with weakened immune systems (e.g., HIV/AIDS).  Examples: Pneumocystis pneumonia, candidiasis.  Treatment: Antimicrobials, antiretroviral therapy (for HIV)(essentials-of-pathophys…). 233. Metabolic Alkalosis – Causes and Treatment  Cause: Excessive vomiting, prolonged diarrhea, or overuse of diuretics.  Diagnosis: ABG analysis (pH 7.45, high bicarbonate).  Treatment: Correct electrolyte imbalances, stop vomiting/diuretics, and administer potassium if needed(essentials-of-pathophys…). 53-54. Example of Active Immunity  Active Immunity: o Natural: Immunity developed after an infection (e.g., measles). o Artificial: Immunity developed through vaccination (e.g., flu shot)(essentials-ofpathophys…).lOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () 229. What is Hyponatremia? Clinical Manifestations  Definition: Serum sodium levels 135 mEq/L.  Symptoms: Nausea, headache, confusion, seizures, coma.  Diagnosis: Serum sodium levels, physical exam.  Treatment: Fluid restriction, hypertonic saline in severe cases(essentials-ofpathophys…). 17. Differentiate Hypertrophy and Atrophy  Hypertrophy: Increase in the size of cells (e.g., muscle growth from exercise).  Atrophy: Decrease in the size of cells or tissue due to disuse or disease (e.g., muscle wasting during immobilization)(essentials-of-pathophys…). Clinical Manifestations of Scoliosis – Breathing Difficulties  Cause: Severe curvature of the spine can compress the lungs.  Symptoms: Shortness of breath, reduced lung function.  Treatment: Bracing, physical therapy, surgery in severe cases(essentials-ofpathophys…). 536. Pathophysiology of Fibromyalgia  Cause: The exact cause is unknown, but it may involve abnormal pain processing in the brain.  Symptoms: Chronic widespread pain, fatigue, sleep disturbances, and "fibro fog" (cognitive issues).  Diagnosis: Based on symptoms and ruling out other conditions.  Treatment: Pain management (e.g., NSAIDs, antidepressants), exercise, and cognitive behavioral therapy(essentials-of-pathophys…).lOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () 53. Table 2-3 – Types of Acquired Immunity  Active Immunity: The body generates its own antibodies in response to infection or vaccination.  Passive Immunity: Temporary immunity provided by antibodies from another source (e.g., maternal antibodies, immunoglobulin therapy)(essentials-of-pathophys…). All chapter overview, over prepare study care from all the chapter. 1-10: General Pathophysiology and Homeostasis 1. Define a Symptom o A symptom is a subjective experience reported by the patient, such as pain, nausea, or dizziness(essentials-of-pathophys…). 2. Describe Homeostasis o Homeostasis refers to the body’s ability to maintain internal stability despite external changes. It balances conditions like temperature, pH, and electrolytes to ensure health(essentials-of-pathophys…). 3-4. Epinephrine Release in Alarm Phase and Stress Response  Epinephrine is released during the alarm stage (fight-or-flight) to increase heart rate, elevate blood pressure, and enhance blood glucose levels for energy(essentials-ofpathophys…). 5. Function of Mitochondria o Mitochondria generate energy in the form of ATP, critical for all cellular activities(essentials-of-pathophys…). 6. Effect of RAAS System o The RAAS system (Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System) causes vasoconstriction and increases blood pressure. It retains sodium and water to regulate fluid balance(essentials-of-pathophys…) (NUR2063_Patho_Exam_1_St…). 7. Define Hyperplasia o Hyperplasia refers to an increase in the number of cells in a tissue, often due to hormonal stimulation or increased demand (e.g., uterine lining thickening) (essentials-of-pathophys…).lOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () 8. Applying Homeostasis o Homeostasis keeps conditions like body temperature (via sweating or shivering) and blood sugar (via insulin) in balance(essentials-of-pathophys…). 9. Function of Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER) o The ER transports proteins and lipids within the cell.  Rough ER: Has ribosomes and synthesizes proteins.  Smooth ER: Lacks ribosomes and synthesizes lipids(essentials-ofpathophys…). 10. Function of Renin  Renin triggers the RAAS system, increasing blood pressure and sodium retention (essentials-of-pathophys…). 11-20: Fluids, Electrolytes, and Edema 11. Increased Hydrostatic Pressure and Edema  Edema occurs when fluid leaks from capillaries into tissues due to increased hydrostatic pressure(essentials-of-pathophys…). 12. Causes of Fluid Volume Deficit  Fluid deficits arise from vomiting, diarrhea, excessive sweating, or reduced fluid intake (essentials-of-pathophys…). 13. Electrolyte Associated with Tetany  Hypocalcemia (low calcium) leads to muscle tetany (involuntary muscle spasms) (essentials-of-pathophys…). 14. Symptoms of Dehydration  Signs include dry mouth, thirst, decreased urine output, and low blood pressure (essentials-of-pathophys…). 15. Define Osmosis  Osmosis is the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from low solute concentration to high solute concentration(essentials-of-pathophys…).lOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () 16. Clinical Manifestations of Fluid Excess  Symptoms include weight gain, edema, hypertension, and pulmonary congestion (essentials-of-pathophys…). 17-18. Electrolyte Distribution in ECF vs. ICF  ECF (Extracellular): High sodium, chloride, and bicarbonate levels.  ICF (Intracellular): High potassium and phosphate concentrations(essentials-ofpathophys…). 19. Ways of Fluid Loss  Fluid leaves the body through urine, sweat, vomiting, and diarrhea(essentials-ofpathophys…). 20. Fatal Effect of Hyponatremia  Severe hyponatremia causes brain swelling, leading to seizures, coma, or death (essentials-of-pathophys…). 21-40: Immunity, Inflammation, and Electrolytes 21. Bones as Reservoirs for Electrolytes  Bones store calcium and release it as needed for body functions(essentials-ofpathophys…). 22. Normal Lab Values for Potassium, Sodium, Calcium  Potassium: 3.5-5.0 mEq/L  Sodium: 135-145 mEq/L  Calcium: 8.5-10.5 mg/dL(essentials-of-pathophys…). 23. ABGs (Arterial Blood Gases)  ABGs assess pH, PaCO₂, PaO₂, and HCO₃⁻ levels to determine acid-base status (essentials-of-pathophys…).lOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () 24. Cause of Metabolic Alkalosis  Metabolic alkalosis occurs from prolonged vomiting or excessive antacid use(essentialsof-pathophys…). 25. Define Active Transport  Active transport requires energy (ATP) to move substances against their concentration gradient(essentials-of-pathophys…). 26. Hypertonic, Hypotonic, Isotonic Solutions  Hypertonic: Water leaves cells, causing shrinkage.  Hypotonic: Water enters cells, causing swelling.  Isotonic: No net water movement(essentials-of-pathophys…). 27. Ion Imbalance and Acid-Base Imbalance  Bicarbonate (HCO₃ ) ⁻ imbalances disrupt acid-base balance, leading to alkalosis or acidosis(essentials-of-pathophys…). 28. Chvostek’s Sign and Cause  Chvostek’s sign: Twitching of facial muscles caused by hypocalcemia(essentials-ofpathophys…). 29. High Fluid Loss Systems  The renal system (urinary system) is responsible for the most significant fluid loss (essentials-of-pathophys…). 30. Clinical Manifestations of Cellulitis  Symptoms include redness, swelling, warmth, and pain at the infection site(essentialsof-pathophys…). 41-60: Immune System and Hypersensitivity 41. First Barrier to Microbes and PathogenslOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe ()  The skin acts as the first line of defense(essentials-of-pathophys…). 42. SLE Presentation  Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) involves joint pain, fatigue, and a butterfly rash on the face(essentials-of-pathophys…). 43. Rheumatoid Arthritis  Causes symmetrical joint pain, swelling, and stiffness due to autoimmune inflammation (essentials-of-pathophys…). 44. Elevated Eosinophils  High eosinophil counts suggest allergic reactions or parasitic infections(essentials-ofpathophys…). 45. Elevated Neutrophils  Indicates acute bacterial infections or inflammation(essentials-of-pathophys…). 46. Role of Mast Cells  Mast cells release histamine and initiate inflammatory responses during allergies (essentials-of-pathophys…). 47-48. Adaptive Immunity Cells  B cells and T cells target specific pathogens and generate immune memory(essentials-ofpathophys…). 49. IgA Antibodies Secretion  Found in mucous membranes and secretions like tears and saliva(essentials-ofpathophys…). 50. Risk for Opportunistic Infections  HIV/AIDS patients are highly vulnerable to opportunistic infections(essentials-ofpathophys…).lOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () 61-80: Cancer, Burns, and Infections 61. Cells Invaded by HIV  CD4 T-helper cells are targeted by HIV, leading to AIDS if untreated(essentials-ofpathophys…). 62. Cachexia  Severe weight loss and muscle wasting common in cancer patients(essentials-ofpathophys…). 63-65. Carcinogenesis Steps and Cancer Cells  Initiation: Mutation of normal cells.  Promotion: Proliferation of mutated cells.  Progression: Cancer spreads and invades other tissues(essentials-of-pathophys…). 66. Anaplastic Cells  Undifferentiated, irregular cells found in aggressive tumors(essentials-of-pathophys…). 67-68. Screening for Breast and Colon Cancer  Mammograms and colonoscopies detect cancers early(essentials-of-pathophys…). 69-70. Neoplasia and Contact Dermatitis  Neoplasia: Abnormal tissue growth.  Contact Dermatitis: Skin irritation from allergens or chemicals(essentials-ofpathophys…). This comprehensive breakdown answers all the questions in detail. If you need further clarification on any point, feel free to ask! 4o You said:lOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () FINSH THE QUESTION ChatGPT said: ChatGPT Here is the completion of the remaining questions with detailed answers from the NUR2063 Pathophysiology Exam 1 Study Guide: 81-110: Skin, Burns, Musculoskeletal Disorders, and Compartment Syndrome 81. Common Body Areas for Skin Cancer  Skin cancer frequently appears on sun-exposed areas like the face, neck, hands, and arms(essentials-of-pathophys…). 82. Define/Identify Mongolian Spots  Mongolian spots: Flat, bluish-gray patches, usually found on the lower back or buttocks at birth, more common in infants with darker skin(essentials-of-pathophys…). 83. Presentation and Effects of Albinism  Albinism: A genetic condition causing a lack of melanin in the skin, hair, and eyes, often leading to visual impairments and increased sensitivity to sunlight(essentials-ofpathophys…). 84. Presentation of Molluscum Contagiosum  Molluscum contagiosum: A viral skin infection presenting with small, firm, and painless bumps that can be flesh-colored or pearly white(essentials-of-pathophys…). 85. Describe a Furuncle  Furuncle (Boil): A painful, pus-filled lump under the skin caused by bacterial infection, often involving hair follicles(essentials-of-pathophys…).lOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () 86. Describe and Identify All Pressure Ulcers  Pressure Ulcers (also called bedsores) occur due to prolonged pressure on the skin: o Stage 1: Non-blanchable redness. o Stage 2: Partial-thickness skin loss. o Stage 3: Full-thickness tissue loss with visible fat. o Stage 4: Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone or muscle(essentials-ofpathophys…). 87. Clinical Manifestations of Rosacea  Rosacea: Chronic skin condition causing facial redness, visible blood vessels, and acne-like bumps. It may also lead to eye irritation and thickened skin on the nose (rhinophyma)(essentials-of-pathophys…). 88. Causes of Gout  Gout results from the buildup of uric acid crystals in joints, often due to dietary factors like red meat, seafood, or alcohol consumption(essentials-of-pathophys…). 89. Effects of Muscular Dystrophy  Muscular dystrophy is an inherited condition causing progressive muscle weakness, leading to disability as muscles are replaced with fat and scar tissue(essentials-ofpathophys…). 90. Define Osteoporosis  Osteoporosis: A condition where bones become weak and brittle due to loss of bone density, often associated with calcium or vitamin D deficiency(essentials-ofpathophys…). 91. Disease Associated with Psoriatic Arthritis  Psoriatic arthritis occurs in individuals with psoriasis, leading to joint pain and inflammation(essentials-of-pathophys…). 92. Define Lordosis, Scoliosis, and Kyphosis  Lordosis: Excessive inward curvature of the lower spine.  Scoliosis: Lateral (side-to-side) curvature of the spine.lOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe ()  Kyphosis: Hunchback or excessive outward curvature of the upper spine(essentials-ofpathophys…). 93. Cause and Manifestations of Osteoarthritis  Osteoarthritis: Caused by wear and tear on joints, leading to pain, stiffness, and decreased range of motion, commonly affecting knees, hips, and hands(essentials-ofpathophys…). 94. Cause and Manifestations of Osteomyelitis  Osteomyelitis: A severe bone infection, often caused by bacteria, resulting in fever, bone pain, and swelling over the affected area(essentials-of-pathophys…). 95. Define Atrophy  Atrophy: The wasting away or decrease in size of a tissue or organ due to lack of use or disease (e.g., muscle atrophy)(essentials-of-pathophys…). 96. Osteomalacia, Rickets, and Other Disorders  Osteomalacia: Soft bones in adults due to vitamin D deficiency.  Rickets: A similar condition in children, leading to bone deformities.  Osteogenesis Imperfecta: A genetic disorder causing brittle bones.  Fibromyalgia: Chronic pain and fatigue syndrome(essentials-of-pathophys…). Does not have cure. 97. Define Dislocation, Sprain, Amputation, and Stress Fracture  Dislocation: Displacement of a joint from its normal position.  Sprain: Injury to ligaments from overstretching.  Amputation: Surgical removal of a limb.  Stress Fracture: Small cracks in bones due to repetitive stress(essentials-ofpathophys…). 98. What Happens with a Herniated Disc  A herniated disc occurs when the soft inner part of a spinal disc bulges out through a tear, compressing nearby nerves and causing pain, numbness, or weakness(essentialsof-pathophys…).lOMoARcPSD| Downloaded by clepatra joe () 99. Etiology of Hip Dysplasia  Developmental hip dysplasia (DDH) is caused by abnormal formation of the hip joint during infancy, leading to joint instability(essentials-of-pathophys…). 100. All Fracture Types and Differentiation  Types of fractures: o Closed: Bone breaks but does not pierce the skin. o Open (Compound): Bone breaks through the skin. o Comminuted: Bone shatters into multi